Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. When assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate, it is important for the LPN/LVN to realize that the center of gravity for an elderly person is in the

• A. Arms.
• B. Upper torso.
• C. Head.
• D. Feet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Upper torso.' In elderly individuals, the center of gravity tends to shift upwards towards the upper torso due to various factors such as changes in posture and muscle strength. Understanding this is crucial for safe ambulation as it helps in maintaining balance and stability. Choices A, 'Arms,' C, 'Head,' and D, 'Feet,' are incorrect. The center of gravity is not typically located in the arms, head, or feet. It is higher up in the body, specifically in the upper torso. Knowing the correct location of the center of gravity is essential for assisting elderly clients in ambulation effectively and preventing falls.

3. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

4. When teaching adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a group of newly licensed nurses, what should the charge nurse instruct as the initial response in CPR?

• A. Confirm unresponsiveness
• B. Check for a pulse
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Call for emergency help

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response in CPR is to confirm unresponsiveness. This step is crucial to ensure that the person actually needs CPR before proceeding with further actions. Checking for unresponsiveness is essential to determine if the individual is in need of immediate assistance. Checking for a pulse or beginning chest compressions without confirming unresponsiveness could waste valuable time and potentially harm the individual. Calling for emergency help is important, but it should follow the confirmation of unresponsiveness to ensure timely activation of emergency services.

5. A self-sufficient bedridden patient is unable to reach all body parts. Which type of bath will the nurse assign to the nursing assistive personnel?

• A. Bag bath
• B. Sponge bath
• C. Partial bed bath
• D. Complete bed bath

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is a partial bed bath (Choice C). A partial bed bath involves washing body parts that the patient cannot reach on their own, such as the back. It also includes providing assistance with a backrub to promote circulation and skin integrity. In this scenario, where the patient is bedridden and unable to reach all body parts, a partial bed bath is the most appropriate as it focuses on areas the patient cannot clean themselves. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a bag bath involves using premoistened disposable cloths for bathing, a sponge bath involves using a basin of water and a sponge for cleansing, and a complete bed bath involves washing the entire body, including areas the patient can reach, which are not necessary in this case.

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