Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. A staff nurse is teaching a newly hired nurse about alternatives to the use of restraints on clients who are confused. Which of the following instructions should the staff nurse include?

• A. Remove clocks from the client’s room
• B. Use full-length side rails on the client’s bed
• C. Check on the client frequently while they are in the restroom
• D. Encourage physical activity throughout the day to expend energy

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging physical activity throughout the day is an effective way to manage confusion in clients and reduce the need for restraints. Physical activity helps in expending energy, promoting circulation, and improving overall well-being. Removing clocks from the client’s room (choice A) may not directly address the issue of confusion or reduce the need for restraints. Using full-length side rails on the client’s bed (choice B) can actually increase the risk of entrapment and should be avoided. Checking on the client frequently while they are in the restroom (choice C) is important for monitoring safety but may not directly address the underlying issue of confusion and the need for restraints.

3. A 2-year-old child is brought to the health care provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?

• A. Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours
• B. Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids
• C. Give bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated
• D. Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing mild diarrhea in a 2-year-old child, it is important to maintain their regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Choice A of placing the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours may not provide adequate nutrition and can lead to further electrolyte imbalances. Choice C of giving bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated is a part of the BRAT diet, which is not recommended as the primary approach anymore due to its limited nutritional value. Choice D of placing the child NPO for 24 hours and then rehydrating with milk and water is not appropriate as it can worsen dehydration and delay recovery. Therefore, the best option is to continue the child's regular diet while incorporating oral rehydration fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain nutritional status.

4. A client in a provider’s office tells the nurse that, 'I fast for several days each week to help control my weight.' The client takes several medications for various chronic issues. The nurse should explain to the client that which of the following mechanisms that result from fasting puts her at risk for medication toxicity?

• A. Increasing the metabolism of the medications over time
• B. Increasing the protein-binding response
• C. Increasing medications’ transit time through the intestines
• D. Decreasing the excretion of medications

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fasting can lead to an increased protein-binding response of medications. This can result in a higher concentration of bound medications in the bloodstream, potentially causing toxicity as the medications may not be readily available for metabolism or excretion. Choice A is incorrect because fasting typically doesn't increase medication metabolism. Choice C is incorrect as fasting usually decreases transit time through the intestines. Choice D is incorrect since fasting generally does not decrease medication excretion.

5. A client who has had an allogeneic stem cell transplant needs protective measures. What precaution should the nurse plan for this client?

• A. Ensure the client wears a mask when outside the room if there is construction nearby.
• B. Place the client in a private room with positive pressure airflow.
• C. Restrict all visitors from seeing the client.
• D. Provide a HEPA filter in the client's room.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a client who has undergone an allogeneic stem cell transplant, it is crucial to minimize exposure to potential sources of infection. Wearing a mask when outside the room, especially in areas with construction or other potential risks, helps protect the client's compromised immune system. Positive pressure airflow rooms are typically used for clients with airborne infections, not for those post-stem cell transplant. Restricting all visitors may contribute to the client's well-being, but it is not a direct protective measure against infection. While HEPA filters can be beneficial in maintaining air quality, wearing a mask when exposed to external risks is a more targeted and immediate protective measure in this scenario.

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