Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult client. Which site is most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to use?

• A. Deltoid muscle
• B. Ventrogluteal site
• C. Dorsogluteal site
• D. Rectus femoris site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is the most appropriate and safest site for administering an intramuscular injection to an adult client. It is preferred due to its thick muscle mass and fewer major blood vessels and nerves in the area, reducing the risk of injury or complications. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for vaccines and small-volume injections but may not be suitable for larger volumes. The dorsogluteal site has fallen out of favor due to the risk of injury to the sciatic nerve and other underlying structures. The rectus femoris site is not typically used for intramuscular injections in adults.

3. A client is on bed rest. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Encourage the client to perform antiembolic exercises every 2 hours.
• B. Instruct the client to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours.
• C. Restrict the client’s fluid intake.
• D. Reposition the client every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To prevent complications associated with prolonged bed rest, encouraging the client to perform antiembolic exercises every 2 hours is essential. These exercises help promote circulation and prevent blood clots. Instructing the client to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours is beneficial for respiratory function, but it is not as critical as antiembolic exercises. Repositioning the client every 4 hours helps prevent pressure ulcers and maintain skin integrity. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended, as hydration is important for overall health and well-being, especially for clients on bed rest.

4. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

5. When assessing a client with wrist restraints, the nurse observes that the fingers on the right hand are blue. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Loosen the right wrist restraint.
• B. Apply a pulse oximeter to the right hand.
• C. Compare hand color bilaterally.
• D. Palpate the right radial pulse.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to take first when observing blue fingers in a client with wrist restraints is to loosen the right wrist restraint. Blue fingers indicate compromised circulation, and loosening the restraint can help restore blood flow to the area. Applying a pulse oximeter (Choice B) or palpating the right radial pulse (Choice D) may be necessary following the loosening of the restraint to assess the client's oxygen saturation and pulse. Comparing hand color bilaterally (Choice C) is important but not the immediate action needed when a circulation issue is noted in one hand.

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