Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

2. The nurse is assessing body alignment for a patient who is immobilized. Which patient position will the nurse use?

• A. Supine position
• B. Lateral position
• C. Lateral position with positioning supports
• D. Supine position with no pillow under the patient's head

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing body alignment for an immobilized patient, the nurse should use the lateral position. This position helps in assessing alignment and preventing complications such as pressure ulcers. The supine position (Choice A) may not provide an accurate assessment of body alignment in an immobilized patient. While a lateral position with positioning supports (Choice C) may be used for comfort, it is not specifically for assessing body alignment. Using the supine position without a pillow under the patient's head (Choice D) is not ideal for assessing body alignment in an immobilized patient as it may not accurately reflect the patient's overall alignment.

3. When reviewing car seat use with the parents of a 1-month-old infant, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Use a car seat that has a three-point harness system.
• B. Position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing.
• C. Secure the car seat in the front passenger seat of the vehicle.
• D. Convert to a booster seat after 12 months.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for car seat use with a 1-month-old infant is to position the car seat so that the infant is rear-facing. This orientation provides the safest option for infants as it supports their head, neck, and spine. While using a car seat with a three-point harness system is appropriate for infants, placing the car seat in the front passenger seat is not recommended due to the presence of airbags, which can pose a risk to the infant in the event of deployment. Additionally, transitioning to a booster seat is not suitable at 12 months; infants should remain in rear-facing car seats until they outgrow the seat's height or weight limits, typically around 2 years of age.

4. A client with stage IV lung cancer is 3 days postoperative following a wedge resection. The client states, “I told myself that I would go through with the surgery and quit smoking, if I could just live long enough to attend my child’s wedding.” Based on the Kubler-Ross model, which stage of grief is the client experiencing?

• A. Anger
• B. Denial
• C. Bargaining
• D. Acceptance

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client is in the bargaining stage of grief according to the Kubler-Ross model. In this stage, individuals negotiate for more time to achieve specific goals or fulfill desires. The client's statement about quitting smoking to attend their child's wedding reflects this bargaining behavior. Anger (choice A) is characterized by frustration and resentment, denial (choice B) involves avoidance of reality, and acceptance (choice D) signifies coming to terms with the situation, none of which align with the client's current mindset of bargaining.

5. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

• A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
• B. A mole with a regular border.
• C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
• D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.

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