HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
- A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
- B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
- C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
- D. No special preparation is necessary
Correct answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
2. A nurse is planning an education session for an older adult client who has just learned that she has type 2 diabetes mellitus. Which of the following strategies should the nurse plan to use with this client?
- A. Allow extra time for the client to respond to questions
- B. Expect the client to have difficulty understanding the information
- C. Avoid references to the client’s past experiences
- D. Keep the learning session private and one-on-one
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Choice A, allowing extra time for the client to respond to questions, is the appropriate strategy when educating an older adult with type 2 diabetes mellitus. Older adults may need additional time to process information and formulate responses. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client will have difficulty understanding the information, which may not be the case. Choice C is incorrect because referencing the client's past experiences can help personalize the education session. Choice D is also incorrect as keeping the learning session private and one-on-one may not be necessary for all clients and may limit the potential benefits of group education and support.
3. An assistive personnel tells the nurse, 'I am unable to find a large blood pressure cuff for a client who is obese. Can I just use the regular cuff if I can get it to stay on?' The nurse replies that taking the blood pressure of a morbidly obese client with a regular blood pressure cuff will result in a reading that is:
- A. Low
- B. High
- C. Inaccurate
- D. Unaffected
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using a regular blood pressure cuff on a morbidly obese client will lead to a falsely high blood pressure reading. This occurs because the cuff is not appropriately sized for the client's arm circumference, resulting in increased pressure on the artery and an inaccurate high reading. Choice A is incorrect because the reading will be falsely high, not low. Choice C is incorrect as the reading will not be accurate with an incorrectly sized cuff. Choice D is incorrect because the reading will be affected by using the wrong cuff size.
4. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
- B. Grasp the knot of the sutures with forceps.
- C. Cut the sutures close to the skin on one side.
- D. Pull out the sutures with forceps in one piece.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.
5. A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
- A. Increased appetite
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.
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