HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain
1. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Insert an oral airway
- B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
- C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
- D. Protect the client's head from injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.
2. The client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being educated about dietary modifications. Which dietary restriction should the nurse emphasize the most?
- A. Limit intake of high-fiber foods
- B. Restrict protein intake
- C. Avoid dairy products
- D. Increase fluid intake
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most crucial dietary restriction to emphasize for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is to restrict protein intake. By restricting protein intake, the workload on the kidneys is reduced, which helps slow the progression of CKD. While high-fiber foods are generally beneficial, they may need to be limited in some individuals with CKD due to potassium concerns, making choice A less critical. Avoiding dairy products may be necessary in some cases to control phosphorus levels, but it is not as vital as restricting protein intake. Increasing fluid intake is essential for kidney health, but it is not the most critical dietary modification for clients with CKD.
3. The nurse is palpating the right upper hypochondriac region of the abdomen of a client. What organ lies underneath this area?
- A. Duodenum
- B. Gastric pylorus
- C. Liver
- D. Spleen
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Liver. The liver is located in the right upper hypochondriac region of the abdomen. The duodenum (Choice A) is located in the right upper quadrant but not directly underneath the right upper hypochondriac region. The gastric pylorus (Choice B) is part of the stomach and is located more centrally in the abdomen. The spleen (Choice D) is located in the left upper quadrant of the abdomen, not underneath the right upper hypochondriac region.
4. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
5. Which client is at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers?
- A. A 50-year-old client with a fractured femur
- B. A 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus
- C. A 65-year-old client with limited mobility
- D. A 70-year-old client with a history of stroke
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients with limited mobility are at the highest risk for developing pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on specific areas of the body. This constant pressure can lead to tissue damage and ultimately result in pressure ulcers. While age and medical conditions such as diabetes and a history of stroke can contribute to the risk of pressure ulcers, limited mobility is the most significant factor as it directly affects the ability to shift positions and relieve pressure on vulnerable areas of the body. Therefore, the 65-year-old client with limited mobility is at the highest risk compared to the other clients. The 50-year-old client with a fractured femur may have limited mobility due to the injury, but it is temporary and may not be as prolonged as chronic limited mobility. The 30-year-old client with diabetes mellitus and the 70-year-old client with a history of stroke are at risk for developing pressure ulcers, but their conditions do not directly impact their ability to shift positions and alleviate pressure like limited mobility does.
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