Nursing Elites

1. During a tonic-clonic seizure, what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Insert an oral airway
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula
• C. Restrain the client's arms and legs
• D. Protect the client's head from injury

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a tonic-clonic seizure, the nurse's priority intervention is to protect the client's head from injury. This is crucial to prevent trauma, as head injuries can be severe during a seizure. Inserting an oral airway may cause injury or obstruction during the seizure and is not recommended. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula can be done after ensuring the client's safety. Restraining the client's arms and legs is also not recommended as it can lead to further injury or harm.

2. The client with a new diagnosis of type 2 diabetes is being taught about diet management by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates effective learning?

• A. I should not avoid all carbohydrates
• B. I can eat whatever I want as long as I take my medication
• C. I need to eat regular meals and snacks to maintain my blood sugar levels
• D. I will decrease my intake of sugary foods to prevent low blood sugar

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because eating regular meals and snacks is crucial for maintaining stable blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. This approach helps prevent spikes and drops in blood sugar, promoting better management of the condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Avoiding all carbohydrates is not recommended as they are a major energy source and can be part of a balanced diet; eating whatever one wants while relying solely on medication can lead to uncontrolled blood sugar levels and complications; decreasing sugary foods intake can actually contribute to high blood sugar levels rather than preventing low blood sugar.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. Which assessment finding should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber
• B. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber
• C. Tidaling in the water seal chamber
• D. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately. This finding may indicate an air leak, which can compromise the effectiveness of the chest tube in re-expanding the lung. Absence of drainage in the collection chamber (choice B) may signify that the chest tube is blocked, but it does not pose an immediate threat to the client's condition. Tidaling in the water seal chamber (choice C) is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Presence of subcutaneous emphysema around the insertion site (choice D) suggests air leakage but is not as urgent as continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of appendicitis. Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?

• A. Right upper quadrant pain
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point
• D. Hematuria

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rebound tenderness at McBurney's point is a classic sign of appendicitis. This symptom is due to irritation of the peritoneum when pressure is released during palpation. Right upper quadrant pain (Choice A) is more commonly associated with gallbladder issues. Nausea and vomiting (Choice B) can occur in various abdominal conditions and are not specific to appendicitis. Hematuria (Choice D) is the presence of blood in the urine and is not a typical symptom of appendicitis.

5. The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?

• A. Before bedtime, at 2000
• B. After breakfast
• C. Before the evening meal
• D. After lunch

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.

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