HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Exam 1
1. Which organ lies retroperitoneally?
- A. Kidneys
- B. Testicles
- C. Urinary bladder
- D. Pancreas
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kidneys. The kidneys are located retroperitoneally, behind the peritoneum, providing structural protection and maintaining a stable position within the abdominal cavity. This location helps protect them from external physical trauma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because testicles, urinary bladder, and pancreas are not located retroperitoneally. Testicles are located in the scrotum, the urinary bladder is located in the pelvis, and the pancreas is located in the upper abdomen, not retroperitoneally.
2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. Which lab value should the nurse monitor to assess the effectiveness of this medication?
- A. Hemoglobin
- B. White blood cell count
- C. Platelet count
- D. INR
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, INR (International Normalized Ratio). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication commonly prescribed for conditions like atrial fibrillation. Monitoring the INR helps healthcare providers ensure that the blood is clotting within a therapeutic range. Hemoglobin (Choice A), white blood cell count (Choice B), and platelet count (Choice C) are not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of warfarin therapy in this context.
3. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. To lower blood pressure
- B. To improve appetite
- C. To increase red blood cell production
- D. To reduce fluid retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.
4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?
- A. Serum glucose of 180 mg/dL
- B. Blood pH of 7.30
- C. Positive urine ketones
- D. Serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.
5. A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. What is the most important assessment before administering this medication?
- A. Check blood pressure.
- B. Assess heart rate.
- C. Monitor respiratory rate.
- D. Measure oxygen saturation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the heart rate. Before administering digoxin, it is essential to evaluate the heart rate as digoxin can cause bradycardia. While checking blood pressure, monitoring respiratory rate, and measuring oxygen saturation are important assessments in the care of a client with chronic heart failure, assessing the heart rate is particularly critical due to the medication's potential impact on heart rhythm.
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