Nursing Elites

1. A nurse manager is developing strategies to care for the increasing number of clients who have obesity. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a primary health care strategy?

• A. Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits.
• B. Ensuring the availability of specialized beds in rehabilitation centers for clients who have obesity.
• C. Providing specialized intraoperative training in surgical treatments for obesity.
• D. Educating acute care nurses about postoperative complications related to obesity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits. This is a primary health care strategy as it focuses on prevention and early detection, which are key components of managing obesity. Screening during routine visits allows for timely identification of obesity and related health risks, enabling early intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not align with primary health care strategies for obesity. Ensuring availability of specialized beds, providing intraoperative training, and educating about postoperative complications are more focused on secondary and tertiary levels of care, rather than primary prevention and early detection.

2. The nurse is providing care for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Serum sodium
• D. Serum calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Blood glucose. When caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN), monitoring blood glucose levels is essential due to the increased risk of hyperglycemia associated with TPN infusion. Elevated blood glucose levels can lead to complications such as hyperglycemia, which can be harmful to the client. While monitoring serum potassium (Choice A), serum sodium (Choice C), and serum calcium (Choice D) are also important aspects of care, when specifically considering TPN administration, blood glucose monitoring takes precedence due to the potential for significant complications related to glucose imbalances.

3. A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client’s thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Rhonchi
• B. Crackles
• C. Resonance
• D. Tactile fremitus

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a thoracic examination, normal findings should include resonance, which is the expected sound when percussing the thorax. Resonance indicates healthy lung tissue and air-filled spaces. Abnormal findings such as rhonchi and crackles suggest issues like lung congestion or inflammation. Tactile fremitus refers to vibrations felt on the chest wall during palpation and is not typically assessed during percussion and auscultation of the thorax.

4. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

• A. Chocolate pudding.
• B. Graham crackers.
• C. Sugar-free gelatin.
• D. Apple slices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

5. A nurse at a provider’s office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?

• A. “So I don’t need the colon cancer screening for another 2 or 3 years.”
• B. “For now, I should continue to have a mammogram each year.”
• C. “Because the doctor just performed a Pap smear, I’ll return next year for another one.”
• D. “I had my glucose test last year, so I won’t need it again for 4 years.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.

Similar Questions