HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
- A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
- B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
- C. A notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner
- D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, when the client is unconscious and unable to make decisions, a notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner should be given priority to guide the direction of care. Advance directives provide legal documentation of the client's wishes regarding healthcare decisions in situations where they cannot express their preferences. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) outlines general principles but does not provide specific guidance on the client's care. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) are important but may not reflect the client's preferences. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are useful for standard care pathways but do not address individual client wishes.
2. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
- B. Grasp the knot of the sutures with forceps.
- C. Cut the sutures close to the skin on one side.
- D. Pull out the sutures with forceps in one piece.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.
3. The healthcare provider is caring for a patient who has multiple ticks on lower legs and body. What should the healthcare provider do to rid the patient of ticks?
- A. Use blunt tweezers and pull upward with steady pressure.
- B. Burn the ticks with a match or a small lighter.
- C. Allow the ticks to drop off by themselves.
- D. Apply miconazole and cover with plastic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct answer: When removing ticks, it is essential to use blunt tweezers to grasp the tick as close to the head as possible and pull upward with even, steady pressure to remove the entire tick. Option B is incorrect because burning ticks can increase the risk of infection and is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as waiting for ticks to drop off by themselves prolongs potential exposure to tick-borne diseases. Option D is incorrect as miconazole is an antifungal medication and not used for tick removal.
4. The client is being discharged and has been prescribed furosemide (Lasix). Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the medication?
- A. I will take this medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption.
- B. I will weigh myself daily and report any significant weight loss.
- C. I will include potassium-rich foods in my diet while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication in the morning to prevent nocturia.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Weighing daily and reporting significant weight loss is crucial when taking furosemide to monitor for potential fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is typically taken on an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide can lead to potassium loss, so potassium-rich foods should be consumed. Choice D is incorrect because furosemide is usually taken earlier in the day to prevent nocturia, not at bedtime.
5. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?
- A. These are normal signs of aging.
- B. These are early signs of dementia.
- C. These are purely psychological in origin.
- D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.
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