a client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis dvt is receiving anticoagulation therapy which of the following laboratory values would be most conc
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamental Practice Exam

1. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

2. Which statement by the mother indicates that the mother understands safety precautions with her four-month-old infant and her 4-year-old child?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because having the 4-year-old help feed the four-month-old a bottle in the kitchen while the mother makes supper shows supervision of the infant by the older child in a safe environment. This choice indicates that the mother understands safety precautions by involving the older child in a caregiving task under her supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they involve unsafe practices such as placing the infant on the floor unsupervised, positioning the infant car seat in the front seat, and not providing direct supervision of the children during naptimes.

3. An elderly male client who suffered a cerebral vascular accident is receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube. The LPN knows that the best position for this client during administration of the feedings is

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fowler's position is the optimal position for a client receiving tube feedings via a gastrostomy tube because it reduces the risk of aspiration. In Fowler's position, the client is sitting up at a 45- to 60-degree angle, which helps prevent the formula from flowing back into the esophagus and causing aspiration pneumonia. Choice A, prone position (lying face down), would not be suitable for administering tube feedings as it increases the risk of aspiration. Sims' position (lying on the left side with the right knee flexed) and supine position (lying flat on the back) are also not ideal for administering tube feedings as they do not provide the same level of protection against aspiration as Fowler's position does.

4. Which anatomical location is associated with the deep tendon reflex known as the patellar reflex?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patellar reflex, also called the knee-jerk reflex, is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon just below the patella. This reflex involves the quadriceps muscle and the femoral nerve. The correct answer is 'A: Knee picture' because the patellar reflex is associated with the knee joint. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not correspond to the anatomical location involved in the patellar reflex.

5. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of septicemia. Which assessment finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with septicemia, decreased blood pressure is a critical finding that suggests potential septic shock, a life-threatening condition. Septic shock requires immediate medical intervention to prevent further deterioration and organ dysfunction. Increased urine output (Choice A) may indicate adequate fluid resuscitation, which is a positive response. Increased heart rate (Choice C) and increased respiratory rate (Choice D) are common physiological responses to sepsis and do not necessarily indicate immediate life-threatening complications like decreased blood pressure does in septic shock.

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