Nursing Elites

1. A client with lower extremity weakness is being taught a four-point crutch gait by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Bear weight on both legs.
• B. Move the crutches and the weak leg in unison.
• C. Advance the crutches and the strong leg simultaneously.
• D. Move the crutches forward, then move one leg at a time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a four-point crutch gait involves moving the crutches forward, then moving one leg at a time. This method provides stability and support by alternating movement between the crutches and legs. Choice A is incorrect because bearing weight on both legs simultaneously is not the correct method for a four-point gait. Choice B is incorrect as moving the crutches and weak leg together does not provide the required stability. Choice C is incorrect as advancing the crutches and strong leg together does not promote the alternating movement needed for a four-point gait.

2. When orienting a newly licensed nurse on taking a telephone prescription, which statement indicates understanding of the process?

• A. A second nurse enters the prescription into the client’s medical record.
• B. Another nurse should listen to the phone call.
• C. The provider can clarify the prescription when they sign the health record.
• D. I should omit the 'read back' if this is a one-time prescription.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a second nurse should verify and enter the prescription into the client’s medical record to ensure accuracy. This step is crucial to prevent errors in transcription and administration. Choice B is incorrect as having another nurse listen to the phone call does not ensure accurate transcription. Choice C is incorrect because the provider clarifying the prescription upon signing the health record does not replace the need for proper documentation. Choice D is incorrect because the 'read back' process is essential for all telephone prescriptions to confirm accuracy and prevent errors in transcription or administration.

3. What is the most suitable snack food for the LPN/LVN to offer a client with myasthenia gravis who is at risk for altered nutritional status?

• A. Chocolate pudding.
• B. Graham crackers.
• C. Sugar-free gelatin.
• D. Apple slices.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chocolate pudding is the best snack food choice for a client with myasthenia gravis at risk for altered nutritional status due to its nutrient density and soft texture, which can be easier for clients with swallowing difficulties to consume. Graham crackers, sugar-free gelatin, and apple slices may not provide the same level of nutrient density or ease of consumption for these clients. Graham crackers and apple slices may also pose challenges for clients with swallowing difficulties, while sugar-free gelatin, although a good option for some clients, may not offer the same level of nutrition as chocolate pudding.

4. The LPN is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and lifestyle modifications. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. If I exercise at least twice weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol.
• B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat.
• C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
• D. My blood level of low-density lipoproteins needs to increase.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Limiting intake of beef to 4 ounces per week is an effective dietary modification to manage high cholesterol. Choice A is incorrect because the frequency and duration of exercise alone may not be sufficient to lower cholesterol significantly. Choice B is incorrect as proteins, including lean sources like poultry and fish, can be a part of a healthy diet. Choice D is incorrect as low-density lipoproteins, known as bad cholesterol, should be decreased, not increased, for heart health.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is taking digoxin (Lanoxin). Which finding should the healthcare provider be notified of immediately?

• A. Heart rate of 52 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg
• C. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dL
• D. Potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 52 beats per minute is a critical finding in a client taking digoxin, as it may indicate digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can cause bradycardia as a side effect, and a heart rate of 52 bpm warrants immediate attention to prevent adverse outcomes. Monitoring and reporting changes in heart rate are crucial in clients on digoxin therapy to prevent serious complications. The other vital signs and laboratory values provided are within normal ranges or not directly associated with digoxin toxicity in this scenario, making them lower priority for immediate reporting.

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