Nursing Elites

1. A client is expressing anger about his diagnosis of colorectal cancer. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Reassure the client that this is an expected response to grief.
• B. Ignore the client’s anger and continue with the plan of care.
• C. Tell the client that anger is not going to help his situation.
• D. Encourage the client to express his anger.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is expressing anger about a diagnosis, it is essential for the nurse to validate the client's feelings. Choice A is correct because reassuring the client that anger is an expected response to grief acknowledges the client's emotions and encourages expression, fostering a therapeutic relationship. This validation helps the client feel understood and supported during a challenging time. Choice B is incorrect as ignoring the client's anger can lead to feelings of neglect and hinder effective communication, which is crucial for providing holistic care. Choice C is inappropriate because telling the client that anger is not helpful dismisses the client's emotions and can further escalate the situation, potentially damaging the nurse-client relationship. Choice D is not the best option as it does not involve acknowledging the client's feelings or providing support and validation, which are vital in promoting emotional well-being and trust between the client and the nurse.

2. A young mother of three children complains of increased anxiety during her annual physical exam. What information should the LPN/LVN obtain first?

• A. Sexual activity patterns.
• B. Nutritional history.
• C. Leisure activities.
• D. Financial stressors.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should first obtain the nutritional history in this scenario. Nutrition plays a crucial role in mental health, and deficiencies or imbalances in diet can contribute to anxiety symptoms. Understanding the mother's nutritional intake can help identify any factors exacerbating her anxiety. Sexual activity patterns are not directly relevant to her anxiety symptoms unless specifically indicated. Leisure activities and financial stressors may be important but are secondary to addressing the potential impact of nutrition on anxiety.

3. During assessment, what is an indication of thrombophlebitis in a client who has been on bed rest for the past month?

• A. Calf swelling
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Decreased urine output
• D. Generalized rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calf swelling is a common sign of thrombophlebitis, which is inflammation of a vein due to a blood clot. Prolonged immobility can predispose individuals to thrombophlebitis. Calf swelling occurs due to the obstruction of blood flow, causing localized edema. This condition can lead to serious complications like pulmonary embolism if not promptly addressed. Elevated blood pressure, decreased urine output, and a generalized rash are not typically associated with thrombophlebitis. Elevated blood pressure may be linked to other conditions like hypertension, decreased urine output to kidney dysfunction, and a generalized rash to allergic reactions or skin conditions. Therefore, in a client on bed rest, calf swelling should raise suspicion of thrombophlebitis and prompt further evaluation and intervention.

4. The client has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?

• A. Pain in the affected leg
• B. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Swelling in the affected leg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication where a blood clot travels to the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention. While pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT, shortness of breath suggests a more critical situation that necessitates urgent intervention.

5. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?

• A. Romberg test
• B. Deep tendon reflexes
• C. Mini-Mental State Examination
• D. Babinski reflex

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.

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