HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. What is the most important action for the healthcare professional to take to ensure the chest tube is functioning properly?
- A. Milk the chest tube to ensure patency.
- B. Clamp the chest tube when moving the client.
- C. Ensure the water seal chamber is filled to the appropriate level.
- D. Secure the chest tube to the client's bed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ensuring the water seal chamber is filled to the appropriate level is crucial to maintain the effectiveness of the chest tube drainage system. This step helps prevent air from entering the pleural space, ensuring proper lung re-expansion. 'Milking' the chest tube is not recommended as it can cause damage to the chest tube and surrounding tissues. Clamping the chest tube is not advisable as it can lead to tension pneumothorax. Securing the chest tube to the bed is important for stability but does not directly impact the functioning of the chest tube.
2. An occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who was exposed to an unknown dry chemical, resulting in a chemical burn. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Irrigate the affected area with running water.
- B. Wash the affected area with antibacterial soap.
- C. Brush the chemical off the skin and clothing.
- D. Leave the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for an employee exposed to an unknown dry chemical is to brush off the chemical from the skin and clothing. This helps prevent further skin contact before irrigation can be done. Irrigating the affected area with running water is crucial after brushing off the chemical to minimize the exposure. Washing the affected area with antibacterial soap is not appropriate for chemical burns, as soap can react with certain chemicals and worsen the situation. Leaving the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive may allow the chemical to continue to harm the skin and should be avoided.
3. A nurse is preparing change of shift report after the night shift using one SBAR communication tool. Which of the following data should the nurse include when reporting background information?
- A. “Blood pressure 160/92 mm Hgâ€
- B. “Start the first dose of penicillin at 1200â€
- C. “Pain rating of 5 on a scale from 0 to 10â€
- D. “Code status: do-not-resuscitateâ€
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When providing background information in a shift report using the SBAR communication tool, the nurse should include details related to medication administration and orders. This helps ensure continuity of care and accurate handover of responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D do not typically fall under background information for shift reports. A blood pressure reading, pain rating, and code status are more relevant to the patient's current condition and status, rather than background information about medications or orders.
4. A client with a tracheostomy collar has a decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation during tracheal suctioning. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Remove the inner cannula.
- C. Irrigate the stoma.
- D. Discontinue suctioning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue suctioning. Suctioning should be stopped immediately to prevent further decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation. Elevating the head of the bed may help with oxygenation, but the priority is to stop the suctioning procedure. Removing the inner cannula or irrigating the stoma are not appropriate actions and could worsen the client's condition.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?
- A. 42 gtt/min
- B. 83 gtt/min
- C. 125 gtt/min
- D. 250 gtt/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.
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