Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following client identifiers should the healthcare professional use to ensure medication safety?

• A. Ask the client to state their full name.
• B. Ask the client for their date of birth.
• C. Compare the client's wristband with the medication administration record.
• D. Ask the client for their room number.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Comparing the client's wristband with the medication administration record is a crucial step in ensuring medication safety. The wristband typically contains unique identifiers such as the client's name, date of birth, and medical record number, which should be cross-checked with the medication administration record to confirm the correct patient. Asking the client to state their name (Choice A) or date of birth (Choice B) may not be as reliable as the information can be misunderstood or miscommunicated. Asking for the room number (Choice D) is not a reliable client identifier for medication administration and does not confirm the patient's identity accurately.

2. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

• A. Administer the enema solution.
• B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
• C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
• D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2 degrees C (102 degrees F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and census overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse's priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Heart rate
• C. Abdominal tenderness
• D. Census overdue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high fever is a significant indicator of infection or other serious conditions, making it the priority finding. Elevated temperature indicates an immediate concern for infection, which can quickly escalate and lead to severe complications if not addressed promptly. While heart rate, abdominal tenderness, and census overdue are important aspects to consider in the client's care, addressing the fever takes precedence due to its potential severity and implications for the client's health.

4. A client is about to undergo emergency abdominal surgery for appendicitis. A healthcare professional is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to the client. The healthcare professional realizes the client may be unprepared to learn if the client:

• A. Is not feeling well
• B. Reports severe pain
• C. Has low blood pressure
• D. Is anxious

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Severe pain can be a significant distraction and impediment to the learning process. When a client is experiencing severe pain, their focus and attention are primarily directed towards managing the pain, making it difficult for them to absorb and retain new information effectively. Options A, C, and D, although important considerations in a healthcare setting, do not directly impact the client’s ability to learn in the same way that severe pain does. Not feeling well, low blood pressure, and anxiety are all factors that can be addressed or managed to facilitate learning, unlike severe pain which can significantly hinder the learning process.

5. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

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