Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer medications to a client. Which of the following client identifiers should the healthcare professional use to ensure medication safety?

• A. Ask the client to state their full name.
• B. Ask the client for their date of birth.
• C. Compare the client's wristband with the medication administration record.
• D. Ask the client for their room number.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Comparing the client's wristband with the medication administration record is a crucial step in ensuring medication safety. The wristband typically contains unique identifiers such as the client's name, date of birth, and medical record number, which should be cross-checked with the medication administration record to confirm the correct patient. Asking the client to state their name (Choice A) or date of birth (Choice B) may not be as reliable as the information can be misunderstood or miscommunicated. Asking for the room number (Choice D) is not a reliable client identifier for medication administration and does not confirm the patient's identity accurately.

2. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit has received change-of-shift report and will care for four clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?

• A. Updating the plan of care for a client who is postoperative
• B. Reinforcing teaching with a client who is learning to walk using a quad cane
• C. Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence
• D. Applying a sterile dressing to a pressure injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C - 'Reapplying a condom catheter for a client who has urinary incontinence.' This task falls within the scope of duties for an assistive personnel (AP). Updating care plans (Choice A), reinforcing teaching (Choice B), and applying sterile dressings (Choice D) typically require a higher level of training and expertise, making them tasks that should not be assigned to an AP. Assigning appropriate tasks based on skill levels ensures safe and effective patient care.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the healthcare provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the toxic effects of the drug on the liver. Liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) are essential markers to assess liver function and damage. Monitoring these enzymes early is crucial to detect hepatotoxicity and guide further management. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red and white blood cell counts are not specific to assess liver damage in this context. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels are primarily used to evaluate kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

4. A nurse at a clinic is collecting data about pain from a client who reports severe abdominal pain. The nurse asks the client if there have been any accompanying nausea and vomiting. Which of the following pain characteristics is the nurse attempting to determine?

• A. Presence of associated manifestations.
• B. Location of the pain
• C. Pain quality
• D. Aggravating and relieving factors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse is identifying associated manifestations like nausea and vomiting that may occur with the pain. The presence of associated manifestations helps in understanding the broader clinical picture and potential causes of the pain. Location refers to where the pain is felt, pain quality describes the nature of the pain, and aggravating and relieving factors relate to what makes the pain worse or better. In this scenario, the focus is on identifying additional symptoms that can provide important diagnostic clues.

5. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?

• A. Heart rate of 55 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• D. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is a contraindication for administering digoxin, as it can lead to bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect associated with digoxin toxicity. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL are within normal limits and would not warrant withholding the medication or contacting the healthcare provider in this context. Therefore, a heart rate of 55 beats per minute would prompt the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.

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