Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is screening several clients at a neighborhood health fair. Which of the following assessment findings is the priority for referral for further care?

• A. HR 105/min
• B. BMI 25 kg/m²
• C. BP 148/92
• D. Glucose 45 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Glucose 45 mg/dL.' Glucose level of 45 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention to prevent complications like seizures, loss of consciousness, and even coma. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious adverse outcomes if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and C do not represent immediate life-threatening conditions and can be managed as part of routine care, unlike hypoglycemia which demands urgent intervention.

2. When using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output.
• B. Add the amount of irrigant used to the urine output measurement.
• C. Measure the amount of irrigant used separately from the urine output.
• D. Document the total amount of fluid used for irrigation only.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an open irrigation technique for a client's catheter is to subtract the amount of irrigant used from the client's urine output. This subtraction helps accurately assess the client's output by accounting for the volume of irrigant introduced. Choice B is incorrect because adding the irrigant to the urine output measurement would falsely inflate the total output, leading to inaccurate assessment. Choice C is incorrect as measuring the amount of irrigant separately does not provide an accurate assessment of the client's total output as it disregards the irrigant's contribution. Choice D is incorrect as documenting the total fluid used for irrigation only does not differentiate between the irrigant and the client's actual urine output, which is crucial for accurate monitoring and assessment.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease has been prescribed a low-protein diet. Which food should the healthcare provider advise the client to limit?

• A. Chicken breast
• B. Apple
• C. Rice
• D. Banana

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Chicken breast. In chronic kidney disease, a low-protein diet is often recommended to reduce the workload on the kidneys. Chicken breast is a high-protein food that should be limited in such diets to help manage the progression of kidney disease. Choices B, C, and D are low in protein and are generally suitable for individuals following a low-protein diet. Apples, rice, and bananas can be included in moderation as part of a balanced diet for individuals with chronic kidney disease.

4. A nurse is talking with caregivers of a 12-year-old child. Which of the following issues verbalized by the caregivers should the nurse identify as the priority?

• A. “We just don’t understand why our child can’t keep up with the other kids in simple activities like running and jumping.”
• B. “Our child keeps trying to find ways around our household rules. They always want to make deals with us.”
• C. “We think our child is trying too hard to excel in math just to get the top grades in the class.”
• D. “Our child likes to sing and worries it will make the other kids want to laugh.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Difficulty in keeping up with physical activities like running and jumping may indicate an underlying physical or developmental issue that requires prompt assessment. This could be related to musculoskeletal problems, coordination difficulties, or other health concerns that need further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D, while important, do not address a potential physical or developmental issue that could impact the child's overall well-being. Addressing the child's physical limitations should be the priority to ensure appropriate support and intervention.

5. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

Similar Questions