Nursing Elites

1. _____ is a type of estrogen, prescribed in the 1940s and 1950s to pregnant women, that is said to have caused testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer in some offspring.

• A. Androsterone
• B. Adiponectin
• C. Progestin
• D. Diethylstilbestrol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Diethylstilbestrol (DES) is a synthetic estrogen that was prescribed to pregnant women in the 1940s and 1950s to prevent miscarriages. However, it was later discovered that DES exposure in utero could lead to health issues in offspring, including an increased risk of testicular, vaginal, and cervical cancer. Choice A, Androsterone, is a steroid hormone produced in small amounts in humans and unlikely to be associated with the adverse effects described. Choice B, Adiponectin, is a protein hormone that plays a role in regulating glucose levels and fatty acid breakdown, not related to the adverse effects mentioned. Choice C, Progestin, is a synthetic form of progesterone used in birth control and hormone therapy, not linked to the specific health concerns associated with DES exposure.

2. A pregnant client mentions in her history that she changes the cat's litter box daily. Which test should the nurse anticipate the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Biophysical profile
• B. Fern test
• C. Amniocentesis
• D. TORCH screening

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, TORCH screening. TORCH screening is done to detect infections such as toxoplasmosis, which can be contracted from handling cat litter and is harmful during pregnancy. Biophysical profile (choice A) is a prenatal ultrasound evaluation. Fern test (choice B) is used to assess for amniotic fluid leakage. Amniocentesis (choice C) involves taking a sample of amniotic fluid to test for genetic abnormalities and certain infections, not specifically related to toxoplasmosis from cat litter.

3. Which procedure is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities?

• A. Artificial insemination
• B. Amniocentesis
• C. Endometriosis
• D. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay. This blood test measures the level of AFP in a pregnant woman's blood, aiding in the detection of neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus. Choice A, artificial insemination, is a method used to facilitate fertilization and is not related to detecting fetal abnormalities. Choice B, amniocentesis, involves collecting amniotic fluid for genetic testing, not directly measuring AFP levels. Choice C, endometriosis, is a medical condition involving abnormal tissue growth and is not a procedure for detecting fetal abnormalities. Therefore, the Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay is the most appropriate option for detecting neural tube defects such as spina bifida and certain chromosomal abnormalities.

4. A primigravida at 36 weeks gestation who is RH-negative experienced abdominal trauma in a motor vehicle collision. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Fetal heart rate at 162 beats per minute
• B. Mild contractions every 10 minutes
• C. Trace of protein in the urine
• D. Positive fetal hemoglobin testing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Positive fetal hemoglobin testing' (D). Positive fetal hemoglobin testing (Kleihauer-Betke test) indicates fetal-maternal hemorrhage, which is critical in an RH-negative mother due to the risk of isoimmunization. This condition can lead to sensitization of the mother's immune system against fetal blood cells, potentially causing hemolytic disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies. Reporting this finding promptly is crucial for appropriate management and interventions. Choices A, B, and C are not as critical in this scenario. While monitoring fetal heart rate and contractions is important, the detection of fetal-maternal hemorrhage takes precedence due to the serious implications it poses for the current and future pregnancies of an RH-negative mother.

5. A 25-year-old gravida 3, para 2 client gave birth to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy 4 hours ago after augmentation of labor with oxytocin (Pitocin). She presses her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating 'I’m bleeding a lot.' What is the most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this client?

• A. Retained placental fragments.
• B. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations.
• C. Uterine atony.
• D. Puerperal infection.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Uterine atony is the most likely cause of bleeding 4 hours after delivery, especially after delivering a macrosomic infant and augmenting labor with oxytocin. Uterine atony is characterized by the inability of the uterine muscles to contract effectively after childbirth, leading to excessive bleeding. The other options, such as retained placental fragments (A), unrepaired vaginal lacerations (B), and puerperal infection (D), are less likely causes of postpartum hemorrhage in this scenario. Retained placental fragments can cause bleeding, but this typically presents earlier than 4 hours postpartum. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations would likely be evident sooner and not typically result in significant bleeding. Puerperal infection is not a common cause of immediate postpartum hemorrhage unless there are other signs of infection present.

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