Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is measuring vital signs for a client and notices an irregularity in the pulse. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full minute, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
• B. Recheck the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes.
• C. Measure the client’s blood pressure.
• D. Record the irregularity and continue with other vital signs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an irregular pulse is detected, it is essential to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute to accurately determine the rhythm. This ensures a comprehensive assessment and helps in identifying any potential issues or abnormalities. Rechecking the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes (Choice B) may not provide an immediate understanding of the irregularity. Measuring the client's blood pressure (Choice C) is important but not directly related to addressing the irregular pulse. Recording the irregularity and continuing with other vital signs (Choice D) may overlook a potentially serious cardiac issue that requires immediate attention.

2. A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the LPN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Calcium
• D. Magnesium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN should monitor potassium levels closely while the client is taking furosemide (Lasix) due to the medication's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss through increased urine output. Hypokalemia can result in serious complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring sodium levels (choice A) is important but not as critical as monitoring potassium in this context. Calcium (choice C) and magnesium (choice D) levels are not typically affected by furosemide and are not the priority for monitoring in this scenario.

3. A client's readiness to learn about insulin administration is being assessed by a nurse. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

• A. ''I can concentrate best in the morning.''
• B. ''It is difficult to read the instructions because my glasses are at home.''
• C. ''I'm wondering why I need to learn this.''
• D. ''You will have to talk to my wife about this.''

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the correct answer because the client's statement about the best time to concentrate indicates readiness for learning. This statement shows an awareness and interest in learning. Choice B is incorrect as it indicates a barrier to learning due to not having glasses. Choice C is incorrect as it shows a lack of understanding or motivation for learning. Choice D is incorrect as it suggests a lack of personal involvement or responsibility in the learning process since the client is deflecting the responsibility to someone else.

4. A client who is nonambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Activate the emergency fire alarm
• B. Extinguish the fire
• C. Evacuate the client
• D. Confine the fire

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next, after confirming the fire, is to evacuate the client. In a fire situation, following the RACE mnemonic, the priority is to rescue or evacuate clients to ensure their safety. Activating the emergency fire alarm (Choice A) is important to alert others and the fire department, but evacuating the client takes precedence. Extinguishing the fire (Choice B) may put the nurse and client at risk and is best left to trained personnel. Confining the fire (Choice D) is not the nurse's responsibility; the focus should be on ensuring the client's safety by evacuating them.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative following a cholecystectomy. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Pain level of 8/10
• C. Temperature of 100.4°F
• D. Saturated abdominal dressing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention, such as ensuring hemostasis and preventing further complications. Absent bowel sounds are common in the immediate post-operative period and may not require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other symptoms. A pain level of 8/10 can be managed with appropriate pain medication and is not typically considered an immediate priority unless other indications suggest complications. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may not be a cause for immediate concern unless it is associated with other signs of infection or distress that would warrant urgent attention.

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