Nursing Elites

1. During preoperative education, a nurse should assess a client's readiness to learn before a mastectomy. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client is ready to learn?

• A. “I don’t want my spouse to see my incision.”
• B. “Will you give me pain medicine after the surgery?”
• C. “Can you tell me about how long the surgery will take?”
• D. “My roommate listens to everything I say.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Asking about the duration of the surgery indicates readiness to learn about the procedure. This question shows that the client is actively seeking information about the surgical process, demonstrating readiness to learn. Choices A, B, and D reflect concerns, specific requests, or statements unrelated to the learning process. They do not directly indicate readiness to absorb information about the upcoming mastectomy.

2. Which statement best describes time management strategies applied to the role of a nurse manager?

• A. Schedule staff efficiently to cover the needs of the managed unit
• B. Assume a fair share of direct client care to set an example
• C. Set daily goals with a prioritization of tasks
• D. Delegate tasks to reduce workload associated with direct care and meetings

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.

3. An occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who was exposed to an unknown dry chemical, resulting in a chemical burn. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Irrigate the affected area with running water.
• B. Wash the affected area with antibacterial soap.
• C. Brush the chemical off the skin and clothing.
• D. Leave the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for an employee exposed to an unknown dry chemical is to brush off the chemical from the skin and clothing. This helps prevent further skin contact before irrigation can be done. Irrigating the affected area with running water is crucial after brushing off the chemical to minimize the exposure. Washing the affected area with antibacterial soap is not appropriate for chemical burns, as soap can react with certain chemicals and worsen the situation. Leaving the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive may allow the chemical to continue to harm the skin and should be avoided.

4. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Increase in blood pressure
• C. Decrease in respiratory rate
• D. Increase in urine output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.

5. During a Weber test, what is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Deliver a series of high-pitched sounds at random intervals.
• B. Place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead.
• C. Hold an activated tuning fork against the client's mastoid process.
• D. Whisper a series of words softly into one ear.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Weber test, the nurse should place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead. This test is used to assess for lateralization of sound in a client with possible hearing issues. Choice A is incorrect because the Weber test does not involve delivering high-pitched sounds at random intervals. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the Rinne test, not the Weber test. Choice D is incorrect as whispering words into one ear is not part of the Weber test procedure.

Similar Questions