Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Discuss the feelings of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
• B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
• C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
• D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.

2. A client has acute renal failure. Which of the following assessments provides the most accurate measure of the client's fluid status?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Intake and output
• C. Urine specific gravity
• D. Peripheral edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Daily weight is the most accurate measure of fluid status in a client with acute renal failure. Fluctuations in weight reflect changes in body fluid volume, including both fluid retention or loss. Intake and output, while important, may not always accurately reflect overall fluid status as it does not account for insensible losses. Urine specific gravity can provide information on urine concentration but does not offer a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid status. Peripheral edema, although a sign of fluid retention, is a more subjective assessment and may not always accurately reflect the client's fluid status like daily weight monitoring does.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Cloudy urine
• B. Burning sensation during urination
• C. Foul-smelling urine
• D. Blood in the urine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The presence of blood in the urine in a client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) may indicate a more severe infection, such as pyelonephritis, or complications like kidney stones or bladder cancer. Therefore, this finding should be reported immediately for further evaluation and management. Cloudy urine, burning sensation during urination, and foul-smelling urine are common symptoms of UTI and may not necessarily signify an urgent need for immediate reporting compared to the presence of blood in the urine.

4. A client with a fractured femur has a BP of 140/94 mmHg and denies any history of HTN. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Request a prescription for an antihypertensive medication.
• B. Ask the client if they are having pain.
• C. Request a prescription for an antianxiety medication.
• D. Return in 30 minutes to recheck the client’s BP.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action is to ask the client if they are having pain. Pain can lead to temporary increases in blood pressure. Addressing pain as a potential cause is the initial step before considering medication adjustments. Requesting an antihypertensive medication or an antianxiety medication without assessing pain first would not address the immediate concern. Returning to recheck the BP can be done after addressing the potential pain issue.

5. At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Stay with the client and offer assistance with relaxation techniques
• B. Assess the client's pain level and administer pain medication if needed
• C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
• D. Encourage the client to engage in a quiet, non-stimulating activity until feeling sleepy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 0100 on the client's second postoperative night, the nurse should address the client's inability to sleep. Providing a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic is appropriate in this situation to help the client rest. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the room and closing the door does not directly address the client's sleep concern. Choice B is not the priority at this moment since the client's main issue is insomnia, not pain. Choice D, while encouraging a non-stimulating activity, does not provide immediate relief for the client's sleeplessness as a sedative-hypnotic would.

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