HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A healthcare professional is providing teaching to a client who had a new medication prescription. Which of the following manifestations of a mild allergic reaction should the professional include?
- A. Urticaria
- B. Ptosis
- C. Nausea
- D. Hematuria
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Urticaria, also known as hives, is a common manifestation of a mild allergic reaction. It presents as raised, red, itchy welts on the skin. Ptosis is drooping of the upper eyelid and is not typically associated with allergic reactions. Nausea is a gastrointestinal symptom that can occur with various conditions but is not specific to allergic reactions. Hematuria, which is the presence of blood in the urine, is not a typical manifestation of an allergic reaction.
2. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?
- A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
- B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
- D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.
3. A client is experiencing dyspnea and fatigue after completing morning care. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the client’s plan of care?
- A. Schedule rest periods during morning care.
- B. Discontinue morning care for 2 days.
- C. Perform all care as quickly as possible.
- D. Ask a family member to come in to bathe the client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Scheduling rest periods during morning care is essential for managing dyspnea and fatigue in the client. This approach allows the client to pace themselves and catch their breath, promoting comfort and reducing symptoms. It is crucial to provide breaks to prevent overwhelming the client and exacerbating their symptoms. Discontinuing morning care for 2 days (choice B) is not a suitable solution as it does not address the underlying issue and may lead to neglect of essential care. Performing all care as quickly as possible (choice C) can worsen the client's symptoms and compromise their well-being by increasing stress and exertion. Asking a family member to bathe the client (choice D) does not address the need for rest periods during care and may not be feasible or appropriate in all situations.
4. A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. Gelatin
- B. Whole milk
- C. Cream soups
- D. Orange juice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the medication with the needle at a 45-degree angle.
- B. Administer the medication with the needle at a 90-degree angle.
- C. Inject the medication into the muscle.
- D. Pinch the skin before injecting.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Enoxaparin is a medication that is administered subcutaneously, which means it should be injected into the fatty tissue layer beneath the skin. Administering enoxaparin at a 90-degree angle ensures proper absorption and reduces the risk of injecting the medication into muscle tissue, which could affect its effectiveness. Injecting the medication at a 45-degree angle may lead to improper absorption as it may not reach the subcutaneous tissue adequately. Injecting the medication into the muscle instead of subcutaneously can alter the absorption rate and therapeutic effects. Pinching the skin before injecting is not necessary for administering enoxaparin subcutaneously and may cause unnecessary discomfort to the client.
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