HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam
1. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the charge nurse include as a developmental task for a young adult?
- A. Becoming actively involved in providing guidance to the next generation.
- B. Adjusting to major changes in roles and relationships due to losses.
- C. Devoting time to establishing an occupation.
- D. Finding oneself 'sandwiched' between and being responsible for two generations.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Devoting time to establishing an occupation. Young adults typically focus on building their careers and personal identities, making establishing an occupation a crucial developmental task for this age group. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical developmental tasks of young adults. Choice A relates more to middle adulthood where individuals take on mentoring roles, choice B is more characteristic of the tasks associated with adjusting to late adulthood, and choice D is more relevant to middle adulthood when individuals may find themselves caring for both their own children and aging parents.
2. During the physical assessment of a client, which technique should a nurse use when performing a Romberg's test?
- A. Touch the client's face with a cotton ball
- B. Apply a vibrating tuning fork to the client's forehead
- C. Have the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together
- D. Perform direct percussion over the area of the kidneys
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During a Romberg's test, the nurse assesses the client's balance. Having the client stand with arms at her sides and feet together is the correct technique. This position helps the nurse observe for swaying or loss of balance, indicating alterations in balance. Choices A and B are incorrect as they are not part of Romberg's test and do not assess balance. Choice D is also incorrect as direct percussion over the kidneys is not associated with a Romberg's test.
3. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?
- A. Tops of the ears
- B. Bridge of the nose
- C. Around the nostrils
- D. Over the cheeks
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.
4. While suctioning a client's nasopharynx, the nurse observes that the client's oxygen saturation remains at 94%, which is the same reading obtained prior to starting the procedure. What action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx.
- B. Reposition the pulse oximeter clip to obtain a new reading.
- C. Stop suctioning until the pulse oximeter reading is above 95%.
- D. Apply an oxygen mask over the client's nose and mouth.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to complete the intermittent suction of the nasopharynx. Since the oxygen saturation remains stable at 94%, which was the initial reading, it indicates that the procedure is not causing a significant drop in oxygen levels. Stopping the suctioning or applying oxygen may not be necessary as the saturation level is within an acceptable range. Repositioning the pulse oximeter clip is unlikely to change the reading significantly. Therefore, completing the procedure maintains care consistency and effectiveness, ensuring proper airway management without unnecessary interventions. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because repositioning the pulse oximeter clip, stopping suctioning until a higher reading is achieved, and applying oxygen are not warranted based on the stable oxygen saturation level of 94% throughout the procedure.
5. What intervention can help prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?
- A. Active and passive range of motion exercises twice a day
- B. Every 4 hours incentive spirometer
- C. Chest physiotherapy twice a day
- D. Repositioning every 2 hours around the clock
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is essential for clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Chest physiotherapy aids in clearing secretions, maintaining lung function, and preventing respiratory complications. Active and passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are important for maintaining joint mobility but are not directly associated with preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS. Incentive spirometer use every 4 hours (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis but may not be as effective as chest physiotherapy in managing secretions. Repositioning every 2 hours (Choice D) is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS.
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