Nursing Elites

1. A charge nurse is explaining the various stages of the lifespan to a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following examples should the charge nurse include as a developmental task for a young adult?

• A. Becoming actively involved in providing guidance to the next generation.
• B. Adjusting to major changes in roles and relationships due to losses.
• C. Devoting time to establishing an occupation.
• D. Finding oneself 'sandwiched' between and being responsible for two generations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Devoting time to establishing an occupation. Young adults typically focus on building their careers and personal identities, making establishing an occupation a crucial developmental task for this age group. Choices A, B, and D do not align with the typical developmental tasks of young adults. Choice A relates more to middle adulthood where individuals take on mentoring roles, choice B is more characteristic of the tasks associated with adjusting to late adulthood, and choice D is more relevant to middle adulthood when individuals may find themselves caring for both their own children and aging parents.

2. When evaluating care of an immobilized patient, which action will the nurse take?

• A. Focus on whether the interdisciplinary team is satisfied with the care.
• B. Compare the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes in the care plan.
• C. Involve primarily the patient's family and health care team to determine goal achievement.
• D. Use objective data solely in determining whether interventions have been successful.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When evaluating the care of an immobilized patient, the nurse should focus on assessing outcomes and response to nursing care. By comparing the patient's actual outcomes with the outcomes identified during planning, the nurse can determine the effectiveness of the interventions implemented. This process allows for a comprehensive evaluation of the care provided. Choice A is incorrect because the satisfaction of the interdisciplinary team does not directly reflect the patient's outcomes and response to care. Choice C is incorrect as it mainly focuses on the involvement of the patient's family and healthcare team, which may not provide a holistic evaluation of the patient's care. Choice D is incorrect as relying solely on objective data may lead to overlooking important subjective aspects of the patient's response and outcomes, which are also crucial in evaluating care effectively.

3. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Fluid volume deficit causes tachycardia
• C. Decrease in blood pressure
• D. Increase in respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.

4. While providing care to a group of patients, which patient should the nurse prioritize seeing first?

• A. A patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea
• B. A bedridden patient with a reddened area on the buttocks who needs to be turned
• C. A patient on bed rest with renal calculi who needs to go to the bathroom
• D. A patient post-knee surgery who needs range of motion exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea first. This patient is at higher risk for deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged bed rest, which can lead to a life-threatening embolus. Chest pain and dyspnea could also indicate a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. The other patients, while requiring care, do not present with symptoms that suggest an immediate life-threatening situation, making them lower priority at this time. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it addresses a potentially critical condition that requires immediate attention.

5. The nurse is caring for a client who was successfully resuscitated from a pulseless dysrhythmia. Which of the following assessments is MOST critical for the nurse to include in the plan of care?

• A. Hourly urine output
• B. White blood cell count
• C. Blood glucose every 4 hours
• D. Temperature every 2 hours

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urine output is crucial after successful resuscitation from a pulseless dysrhythmia to assess kidney function and perfusion. The kidneys are particularly vulnerable to injury following cardiac events due to decreased perfusion during the event. Evaluating urine output hourly allows for early detection of renal impairment or inadequate organ perfusion. Option B, monitoring white blood cell count, is not a priority in this situation as it does not directly relate to immediate post-resuscitation care. Option C, checking blood glucose every 4 hours, is important but not as critical as assessing kidney function and perfusion. Option D, measuring temperature every 2 hours, is relevant for monitoring signs of infection or inflammatory response but is not as crucial as assessing kidney function in this scenario.

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