Nursing Elites

1. An older adult client appears agitated when the nurse requests that the client’s dentures be removed prior to surgery and states, “I never go anywhere without my teeth.” Which of the following is an appropriate nursing response?

• A. You should comply with the request
• B. You seem worried. Are you concerned someone may see you without your teeth?
• C. I will call your family to discuss this
• D. It’s not a big deal; just remove them

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The appropriate nursing response in this situation is to acknowledge and address the client's concerns empathetically. By expressing understanding and asking if the client is worried about being seen without their teeth, the nurse shows empathy and attempts to alleviate the client's anxiety. Choice A is incorrect as it dismisses the client's feelings. Choice C is inappropriate as it does not directly address the client's agitation. Choice D is not the best response as it minimizes the client's feelings and does not provide emotional support.

2. In a mass casualty scenario at a child day care center, which child would the triage nurse prioritize for treatment last?

• A. An infant with intermittent bulging anterior fontanel between crying episodes
• B. A toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body
• C. A preschooler with 1 lower leg fracture and the other leg with an upper leg fracture
• D. A school-age child with singed eyebrows and hair on the arms

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a mass casualty scenario, the triage nurse would prioritize the toddler with severe deep abrasions covering over 98% of the body for treatment last. This child is categorized as 'expectant' due to the extensive injuries, which are unlikely to be survivable even with immediate treatment. The other choices describe injuries that are serious but have a higher likelihood of survival with appropriate and timely intervention. The infant with an intermittent bulging anterior fontanel may have increased intracranial pressure requiring urgent evaluation, the preschooler with leg fractures can be stabilized and treated effectively, and the school-age child with singed hair likely has superficial burns which can be managed promptly.

3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

4. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glascow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glascow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When documenting a client in a non-responsive state with stable vital signs and independent breathing, the nurse should document the Glasgow Coma Scale score to assess the level of consciousness and the regularity of respirations. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deeper level of unconsciousness than described in the scenario. Choice C is incorrect as it does not provide a specific assessment like the Glasgow Coma Scale score. Choice D is incorrect as a Glasgow Coma Scale score of 13 indicates a more alert state than described in the scenario.

5. What is the most important aspect for the nurse to include in the discharge plan for a client performing his own dressing changes at home following abdominal surgery?

• A. Demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene
• B. Explanation of wound care technique
• C. Review of signs and symptoms of infection
• D. Instructions for when to contact the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical aspect for the nurse to include in the discharge plan for a client performing his own dressing changes at home following abdominal surgery is the demonstration of appropriate hand hygiene. Proper hand hygiene is essential to prevent the introduction of infection during dressing changes. While wound care technique, signs and symptoms of infection, and instructions for contacting the healthcare provider are all important components of the discharge plan, ensuring the client understands and practices proper hand hygiene is paramount to minimize the risk of infection. This choice takes precedence as it directly addresses infection prevention during the dressing changes, which is crucial for successful post-operative recovery.

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