Nursing Elites

1. A client with heart failure and a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide is receiving discharge teaching about safety considerations from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. “I will take a hot bath before going to bed.”
• B. “I will take my new medication in the evening.”
• C. “I will leave a light on in my bathroom at night.”
• D. “I will weigh myself once weekly.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Leaving a light on in the bathroom at night is important for an older adult with heart failure who is taking hydrochlorothiazide, a diuretic that can cause nocturia. This safety measure helps prevent falls during nighttime bathroom visits. Option A is incorrect because taking a hot bath before bed can increase the risk of falls due to potential dizziness. Option B does not directly relate to safety considerations but rather the timing of medication administration. Option D, weighing oneself once weekly, is important for monitoring fluid retention but does not address safety concerns related to nocturia and falls.

2. A client with lower extremity weakness is being taught a four-point crutch gait by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Bear weight on both legs.
• B. Move the crutches and the weak leg in unison.
• C. Advance the crutches and the strong leg simultaneously.
• D. Move the crutches forward, then move one leg at a time.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a four-point crutch gait involves moving the crutches forward, then moving one leg at a time. This method provides stability and support by alternating movement between the crutches and legs. Choice A is incorrect because bearing weight on both legs simultaneously is not the correct method for a four-point gait. Choice B is incorrect as moving the crutches and weak leg together does not provide the required stability. Choice C is incorrect as advancing the crutches and strong leg together does not promote the alternating movement needed for a four-point gait.

3. During the stages of dying, a client reaches the point of acceptance. What response should the LPN/LVN expect the client to exhibit?

• A. Apathy
• B. Euphoria
• C. Detachment
• D. Emotionalism

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During the stages of dying, when a client reaches the point of acceptance, the expected response is 'Detachment.' This is characterized by the individual withdrawing emotionally and psychologically from their surroundings as they come to terms with their impending death. Apathy (Choice A) refers to a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern, which is not typically associated with the acceptance stage. Euphoria (Choice B) is an intense feeling of happiness or excitement, which is less likely during the acceptance stage of dying. Emotionalism (Choice D) involves exaggerated or uncontrollable emotional reactions, which are not commonly seen during the acceptance phase.

4. When admitting a 5-month-old who has vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours, what should the healthcare provider observe for signs of which overall imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Increased serum hemoglobin levels
• D. Decreased serum potassium levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a 5-month-old infant vomits multiple times, there is a risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. It is caused by the loss of hydrogen ions from the body, often through vomiting. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is unlikely in this scenario because it is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, increased serum hemoglobin levels, is not typically a direct consequence of vomiting. Choice D, decreased serum potassium levels, may occur with vomiting but is not the primary concern when a patient is vomiting excessively.

5. The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?

• A. Client should be NPO prior to the test
• B. Client should receive a sedative medication before the test
• C. Discontinue anticoagulant therapy before the test
• D. No special preparation is necessary

Correct answer: D

Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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