Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is preparing to administer ketorolac 0.5 mg/kg IV bolus every 6 hr to a school-age child who weighs 66 lb. The available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 0.5 mL
• B. 1 mL
• C. 1.5 mL
• D. 2 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the dose, first convert the weight from pounds to kilograms. The child weighs 66 lb, which is approximately 30 kg. The prescribed dose is 0.5 mg/kg, so for a 30 kg child, the dose would be 0.5 mg/kg x 30 kg = 15 mg. Since the available ketorolac injection is 30 mg/mL, the nurse should administer 15 mg ÷ 30 mg/mL = 0.5 mL per dose. Therefore, choice A (0.5 mL) is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the correct dose based on the child's weight and the concentration of the ketorolac injection.

2. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Droplet
• B. Contact
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.

3. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports diarrhea and decreased urination for 4 days. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to assess the client's skin turgor?

• A. Grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back
• B. Pinch the skin on the back of the hand and observe for elasticity
• C. Assess the skin turgor on the abdomen by pinching the skin
• D. Check the skin turgor by pressing on the forearm and observing the rebound

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To assess skin turgor, the nurse should grasp a skin fold on the chest under the clavicle, release it, and note whether it springs back. This method is preferred for older adults and in cases of significant fluid imbalance. Option B is incorrect as assessing skin turgor on the back of the hand is not the standard assessment site for skin turgor. Option C is incorrect as the abdomen is not the typical area for assessing skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is a more accurate site. Option D is incorrect as pressing on the forearm is not the appropriate site for evaluating skin turgor; the chest under the clavicle is the recommended location for this assessment.

5. A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?

• A. Fluid volume deficit
• B. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements
• C. Anxiety related to new situational crisis
• D. Activity intolerance related to fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.

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