Nursing Elites

1. A young adult client is receiving instruction from a healthcare provider about health promotion and illness prevention. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?

• A. “I had my immunizations as a child, so I’m protected in that area.”
• B. “It is important to schedule routine health care visits even if I am feeling well.”
• C. “I will go to an urgent care center for my routine medical care.”
• D. “There’s no reason to seek help if I am feeling stressed as it’s just part of life.”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scheduling routine health care visits, even when feeling well, is crucial for early detection and prevention of health issues. This proactive approach allows healthcare providers to monitor overall health, provide preventive care, and address any emerging health concerns promptly. Choice A is incorrect because past immunizations do not cover all potential diseases; regular check-ups are still necessary. Choice C is incorrect as urgent care centers are not designed for routine medical care. Choice D is incorrect as seeking help for stress is important for mental well-being and should not be dismissed as a normal part of life.

2. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?

• A. Limiting fluids
• B. Client-controlled analgesia
• C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
• D. Performing passive range of motion exercises

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.

3. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
• B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
• C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
• D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.

4. A nurse is receiving the prescription for a client who is experiencing dysphagia following a stroke. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse clarify?

• A. Dietitian consult
• B. Speech therapy referral
• C. Oral suction at the bedside
• D. Clear liquids

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Clear liquids.' Clients with dysphagia following a stroke are at risk of aspiration, and clear liquids have a higher risk of aspiration compared to thickened liquids or pureed foods. Therefore, the nurse should clarify the prescription for clear liquids to prevent potential harm to the client. Choices A, B, and C are appropriate interventions for a client with dysphagia following a stroke. A dietitian consult can help modify the client's diet for safe swallowing, speech therapy can assist in improving swallowing function, and oral suction at the bedside helps maintain airway patency and prevents aspiration.

5. During assessment, what is a nurse monitoring when assessing body alignment?

• A. The relationship of one body part to another in different positions
• B. The coordination between musculoskeletal and nervous systems
• C. The force opposing movement direction
• D. The ability to move freely

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a nurse assesses body alignment, they are observing the relationship of one body part to another in various positions. This involves evaluating the positioning of joints, tendons, ligaments, and muscles while a person is standing, sitting, or lying down. Choice B is incorrect because it refers more to the coordination between the musculoskeletal and nervous systems, which is not specifically related to body alignment assessment. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the force opposing movement rather than body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as it defines the ability to move freely, which is not directly related to monitoring body alignment.

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