Nursing Elites

1. While providing care to a group of patients, which patient should the nurse prioritize seeing first?

• A. A patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea
• B. A bedridden patient with a reddened area on the buttocks who needs to be turned
• C. A patient on bed rest with renal calculi who needs to go to the bathroom
• D. A patient post-knee surgery who needs range of motion exercises

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea first. This patient is at higher risk for deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged bed rest, which can lead to a life-threatening embolus. Chest pain and dyspnea could also indicate a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. The other patients, while requiring care, do not present with symptoms that suggest an immediate life-threatening situation, making them lower priority at this time. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it addresses a potentially critical condition that requires immediate attention.

2. The healthcare provider is providing oral care to an unconscious patient and notes that the patient has extremely bad breath. Which term will the healthcare provider use when reporting to the oncoming shift?

• A. Cheilitis
• B. Halitosis
• C. Glossitis
• D. Dental caries

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct term the healthcare provider will use when reporting the extremely bad breath of the unconscious patient to the oncoming shift is 'Halitosis' (Choice B). Halitosis specifically refers to bad breath. Cheilitis (Choice A) is inflammation of the lips, not related to bad breath. Glossitis (Choice C) is inflammation of the tongue, not directly associated with bad breath. Dental caries (Choice D) are cavities in the teeth, which can contribute to bad breath but are not the term used to describe bad breath itself.

3. The client is being taught how to use a peak flow meter. The nurse explains that this device should be used to:

• A. Determine oxygen saturation
• B. Measure forced expiratory volume
• C. Monitor the atmosphere for the presence of allergens
• D. Provide metered doses for inhaled bronchodilator

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A peak flow meter is used to measure forced expiratory volume, which helps in monitoring asthma. This measurement provides valuable information about how well the client's lungs are functioning and how narrow their airways are. Choice A is incorrect because determining oxygen saturation is typically done using a pulse oximeter. Choice C is incorrect as a peak flow meter is not used to monitor the atmosphere for allergens but rather to assess lung function. Choice D is incorrect as providing metered doses for inhaled bronchodilators is the function of a metered-dose inhaler, not a peak flow meter.

4. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?

• A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
• B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
• C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
• D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.

5. A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge. Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his wound care after discharge?

• A. Asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
• B. States he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
• C. Demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
• D. Has all the necessary supplies for wound care.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Demonstrating the wound care procedure correctly indicates the client's readiness to independently manage wound care. This action shows practical understanding and application of the necessary skills. Choice A, asking relevant questions, is important but does not directly demonstrate the ability to perform the procedure. Choice B, stating the ability to complete the regimen, is a good intention but does not confirm practical competence. Choice D, having necessary supplies, is essential but does not ensure the client's ability to execute proper wound care.

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