Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or any other medications that can increase the risk of bleeding without consulting their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that demonstrate understanding of warfarin therapy and its potential side effects. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain the effectiveness of warfarin, taking medication at the same time every day ensures consistent therapeutic levels, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding, which can be a side effect of warfarin therapy.

2. While measuring a client’s vital signs, the nurse notices an irregularity in the heart rate. Which nursing action is appropriate?

• A. Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full minute, and describe the rhythm in the chart
• B. Measure the blood pressure
• C. Perform an ECG
• D. Recheck the heart rate after 5 minutes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The appropriate nursing action when an irregularity in the heart rate is observed is to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute and describe the rhythm in the chart. This approach helps in obtaining an accurate assessment of the irregularities present. Measuring the blood pressure (Choice B) is important but not the immediate priority when an irregular heart rate is noted. Performing an ECG (Choice C) may be necessary but is a more advanced intervention that should follow the initial assessment. Rechecking the heart rate after 5 minutes (Choice D) may delay potential interventions for addressing the irregularity, making it less appropriate than the immediate assessment and documentation of the pulse rhythm.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to maintain patency of the tube?

• A. Flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration.
• B. Secure the tube to the client's gown.
• C. Check the placement of the tube by auscultation.
• D. Irrigate the tube with normal saline every shift.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action to maintain patency of a nasogastric (NG) tube is to flush the tube with water before and after medication administration. Flushing helps prevent clogging and ensures that the tube remains clear for proper functioning. Securing the tube to the client's gown (Choice B) is important for stability but does not directly address tube patency. Checking the placement of the tube by auscultation (Choice C) is crucial for verifying correct placement but does not specifically relate to maintaining tube patency. Irrigating the tube with normal saline every shift (Choice D) is not a routine practice for maintaining tube patency and can lead to electrolyte imbalances.

4. Which of the following manifestations confirms the presence of pediculosis capitis in students?

• A. Scratching the head more than usual
• B. Flakes evident on a student's shoulders
• C. Oval pattern occipital hair loss
• D. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Whitish oval specks sticking to the hair shaft are nits, which are a definitive sign of pediculosis capitis (head lice). A: Scratching the head more than usual is a common symptom but not confirmatory of head lice infestation. B: Flakes evident on a student's shoulders may indicate dandruff or dry scalp, not necessarily head lice. C: Oval pattern occipital hair loss is not a typical manifestation of pediculosis capitis.

5. The client is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate intervention?

• A. Absent bowel sounds
• B. Saturated abdominal dressing
• C. Pain level of 8/10
• D. Temperature of 100.4°F

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing is a critical finding that may indicate active bleeding or wound complications. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications, such as hypovolemic shock or infection. Absent bowel sounds, though abnormal, are a common post-operative finding and do not require immediate intervention. Pain level of 8/10 can be managed effectively with appropriate pain control measures and does not indicate an urgent issue. A temperature of 100.4°F is slightly elevated but may be a normal post-operative response to surgery and does not typically require immediate intervention unless accompanied by other concerning signs or symptoms.

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