a hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small bore tube and a continuous pump infusion he reports that he had a bad bo a hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small bore tube and a continuous pump infusion he reports that he had a bad bo
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Test

1. A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Coughing, vomiting, and suctioning can precipitate displacement of the tip of the small-bore feeding tube upward into the esophagus, placing the client at increased risk for aspiration. Checking the sample of fluid withdrawn from the tube (after clearing the tube with 30 ml of air) for acidic (stomach) or alkaline (intestine) values is a more sensitive method for these tubes. The nurse should assess tube placement in this way before taking any other action to ensure the tube is still in the correct position and prevent potential complications. Choice A is incorrect because further assessment is needed due to the risk of tube displacement. Choice B is incorrect as stopping the feeding and involving the family is premature without confirming tube placement. Choice D is incorrect as injecting air and auscultating for gurgling is not the recommended method to confirm tube placement.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer an IM dose of vitamin B1 (Thiamine) to a male client experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal and peripheral neuritis. The client belligerently states, 'What do you think you're doing?' How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because it addresses the client's concern by explaining that the shot will help relieve the pain in his feet, which is a symptom of peripheral neuritis. This response shows empathy and provides the client with a clear benefit of receiving the medication. Choices A, C, and D do not directly address the client's immediate concern about the injection and its purpose, making them less suitable responses. Choice A focuses on the client's behavior rather than the therapeutic effect of the injection. Choice C shifts the responsibility to the client to administer the shot, which may not be appropriate in this situation. Choice D mentions feeling calmer and less jittery, which is not directly related to the client's current complaint of pain in the feet.

3. While caring for a client who was admitted with myocardial infarction (MI) 2 days ago, the nurse notes today's temperature is 101.1 degrees Fahrenheit (38.5 degrees Celsius). The appropriate nursing intervention is to

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should administer acetaminophen as ordered because a slight fever is normal after an MI. This intervention can help manage the fever unless other complications are present. Calling the health care provider immediately is not necessary for a slight fever post-MI. Sending blood, urine, and sputum for culture is not indicated solely based on a slight fever without other symptoms or signs of infection. Increasing fluid intake may be beneficial for various reasons but is not the priority in this situation where managing the fever with acetaminophen is appropriate.

4. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be prescribed for the client with diabetes mellitus to reduce vascular changes and possibly prevent or delay the development of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal failure. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in clients with diabetes mellitus to help reduce the progression of diabetic nephropathy by improving renal blood flow. This medication class can help prevent or delay the development of renal failure in these clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ACE inhibitors do not have a direct impact on preventing or delaying the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pancreatic cancer, or cerebrovascular accidents in clients with diabetes mellitus.

5. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.

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