Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change for a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional plan to take?

• A. Don sterile gloves after opening sterile dressing supplies
• B. Set up the sterile field at waist level
• C. Consider the entire border of the sterile field as contaminated
• D. Place the cap of a sterile solution inside the sterile field

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Setting up the sterile field at waist level is crucial to maintaining its sterility during a dressing change. Choice A is incorrect because sterile gloves should be worn after opening sterile dressing supplies to prevent contamination. Choice C is incorrect as the entire border of the sterile field should be considered contaminated to maintain sterility. Choice D is incorrect because the cap of a sterile solution should never be placed inside the sterile field to prevent contamination.

2. When reviewing EBP about the administration of O2 therapy, what is the recommended maximum flow rate for regulating O2 via nasal cannula?

• A. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L
• B. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 2L
• C. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 4L
• D. Regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 8L

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula no more than 6L. This flow rate is generally recommended to ensure adequate oxygen delivery without causing discomfort or potential harm to the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they suggest flow rates that are either too low (2L, 4L) or too high (8L). A flow rate of 2L might not provide sufficient oxygen, while 4L could be inadequate for some patients. On the other hand, a flow rate of 8L could be excessive and potentially harmful, leading to complications like oxygen toxicity. Therefore, the optimal recommendation is to regulate O2 via nasal cannula at a maximum of 6L to balance effectiveness and safety.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Menses overdue
• C. Soft tender abdomen
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.

4. A nurse is preparing change of shift report after the night shift using one SBAR communication tool. Which of the following data should the nurse include when reporting background information?

• A. “Blood pressure 160/92 mm Hg”
• B. “Start the first dose of penicillin at 1200”
• C. “Pain rating of 5 on a scale from 0 to 10”
• D. “Code status: do-not-resuscitate”

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When providing background information in a shift report using the SBAR communication tool, the nurse should include details related to medication administration and orders. This helps ensure continuity of care and accurate handover of responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D do not typically fall under background information for shift reports. A blood pressure reading, pain rating, and code status are more relevant to the patient's current condition and status, rather than background information about medications or orders.

5. The patient is being treated for cancer with weekly radiation therapy to the head and intravenous chemotherapy treatments. Which assessment is the priority?

• A. Feet
• B. Nail beds
• C. Perineum
• D. Oral cavity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the oral cavity. During cancer treatment involving radiation to the head and intravenous chemotherapy, the oral cavity is a priority assessment area. Radiation can reduce salivary flow and lower the pH of saliva, which can lead to stomatitis and tooth decay. Assessing the oral cavity allows for the early identification and management of potential complications. Choice A, assessing the feet, is not the priority in this scenario as it is not directly impacted by the described cancer treatments. Choice B, assessing the nail beds, is not the priority compared to the oral cavity. Nail bed assessment may be relevant for certain conditions, but in this case, the oral cavity is of higher priority due to the specific treatment effects. Choice C, assessing the perineum, is also not the priority in this situation as it is not directly affected by the described cancer treatments, unlike the oral cavity.

Similar Questions