Nursing Elites

1. A nurse educator is presenting a module on basic first aid for newly licensed home health nurses. The client who has heat stroke will have which of the following?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Clammy skin
• D. Bradypnea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Heat stroke is characterized by elevated body temperature, which can lead to hypotension (low blood pressure) due to dehydration and vasodilation. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and clammy skin are not typical findings in heat stroke. Bradypnea (slow breathing) is also not a common feature of heat stroke. Therefore, hypotension is the most likely cardiovascular manifestation seen in a client with heat stroke.

2. A charge nurse on an acute care unit is planning care for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote the client’s continuity of care?

• A. Plan to assign the client a different nurse each shift
• B. Limit the number of interdisciplinary team members involved in managing the client’s care
• C. Request that the client complete a satisfaction survey at discharge
• D. Start discharge planning on the day of admission

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Starting discharge planning on the day of admission is crucial to ensuring a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. It allows for early identification of needs, coordination of services, and timely interventions. Assigning a different nurse each shift (Choice A) can disrupt continuity of care and lead to inconsistencies in the client's treatment. Limiting the number of interdisciplinary team members (Choice B) may hinder comprehensive care coordination. Requesting a satisfaction survey at discharge (Choice C) focuses more on feedback rather than proactive care planning and coordination.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

4. A client has Clostridium difficile and is in contact isolation. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Wear gloves when changing the client's gown.
• B. Use hand sanitizer after contact with the client.
• C. Wear a mask when entering the client's room.
• D. Clean the room with a disinfectant spray.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with Clostridium difficile in contact isolation is to wear gloves when changing the client's gown. Clostridium difficile is highly transmissible, and wearing gloves helps prevent the spread of the infection. Using hand sanitizer after contact with the client (Choice B) is not enough to prevent the transmission of C. difficile, as the spores can persist and spread. Wearing a mask when entering the client's room (Choice C) is not necessary for C. difficile transmission, which primarily occurs through contact with contaminated surfaces. Cleaning the room with a disinfectant spray (Choice D) is important, but wearing gloves during direct care is the priority to prevent the nurse from acquiring and spreading the infection.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

• A. Furosemide (Lasix)
• B. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
• C. Calcium gluconate
• D. Albuterol (Proventil)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

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