a 42 year old male client refuses to take propranolol hydrochloride inderal as prescribewhich client statement from the assessment data is likely to e
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

2. During an assessment, a healthcare professional is evaluating the body alignment of a standing patient. Which finding will the healthcare professional report as normal?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a standing assessment, the healthcare professional should observe the patient laterally. In a normal body alignment, the head is erect, and the spinal curves align in a reversed 'S' pattern, aiding in maintaining balance and posture. Choice B is incorrect because hips and shoulders should be level and not form an 'S' pattern when observed posteriorly. Choice C is incorrect as the position of the arms is not a key indicator of body alignment. Choice D is incorrect as the feet should be shoulder-width apart with toes pointing forward for optimal balance and stability.

3. A client tells the nurse, “I have to check with my partner and see if they think I am ready to go home.” The nurse responds, “How do you feel about going home today?” Which clarifying technique is the nurse using to enhance communication with the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reflecting is the correct answer as it involves echoing back the client’s feelings and concerns, helping them explore their thoughts. In this scenario, the nurse mirrors the client's statement to encourage the client to delve deeper into their emotions. Pacing involves matching the rate and flow of communication, paraphrasing is restating in different words, and restating is repeating what the client said without adding new information. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are not the appropriate clarifying technique demonstrated in the situation described.

4. The healthcare provider retrieves hydromorphone 4mg/mL from the Pyxis MedStation, an automated dispensing system, for a client who is receiving hydromorphone 3 mg IM every 6 hours PRN for severe pain. How many mL should the healthcare provider administer to the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct dosage calculation is to divide the prescribed dose by the concentration of the medication to determine the volume needed. In this case, 3 mg (prescribed dose) divided by 4 mg/mL (concentration) equals 0.75 mL. Therefore, the healthcare provider should administer 0.75 mL of hydromorphone to the client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately calculate the required volume based on the prescription and concentration provided.

5. A client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hyperglycemia is the correct complication to monitor for in a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content of the solution. TPN solutions are rich in glucose, so monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is less common with TPN due to the high glucose content, making hyperglycemia a more significant concern. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperkalemia (Choice D) are not typically associated with TPN administration, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

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