a 42 year old male client refuses to take propranolol hydrochloride inderal as prescribewhich client statement from the assessment data is likely to e
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

2. When a nurse instructs a client with hearing loss about cleaning their new hearing aids, which statement indicates that the client understands the instructions?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because cleaning the outside part of hearing aids with a damp cloth is an appropriate method. Rubbing alcohol can damage ear molds, so choice B is incorrect. Keeping the volume of hearing aids turned up high may lead to discomfort, making choice C incorrect. Removing batteries when not in use at night is good practice for battery life, but it does not directly relate to understanding cleaning instructions, so choice D is less relevant in this context.

3. A healthcare professional is providing care to a client who has a tracheostomy. Which of the following actions should the professional take to prevent complications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care is essential in preventing infections and complications. Option A is incorrect because povidone-iodine may be too harsh for cleaning around the stoma and can lead to skin irritation. Option C is incorrect because suctioning a tracheostomy should be done using sterile technique to minimize the risk of introducing pathogens. Option D is incorrect as tracheostomy ties need to be changed more frequently, usually every 1-2 days, to prevent skin breakdown and infection.

4. During passive range of motion (ROM) and splinting, the absence of which finding will indicate goal achievement for these interventions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Joint contractures. When a healthcare provider performs passive ROM and splinting on a patient, the goal is to prevent joint contractures. Joint contractures result from immobility and can lead to permanent stiffness and decreased range of motion. Atelectasis (choice A) is a condition where there is a complete or partial collapse of the lung, commonly due to immobility, but not directly related to passive ROM or splinting. Renal calculi (choice B) are kidney stones and are not typically associated with ROM exercises. Pressure ulcers (choice C) result from prolonged pressure on the skin and are prevented by repositioning the patient, not specifically addressed by ROM and splinting exercises.

5. The healthcare provider is planning care for a 14-year-old client returning from scoliosis corrective surgery. Which of the following actions should receive priority in the plan?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Assessing movement and sensation of extremities is the priority after scoliosis corrective surgery as it helps in early detection of any neurological deficits that may have occurred during the procedure. This assessment is essential for prompt intervention if any issues are identified. Administering antibiotics, teaching exercises, and assisting the client to stand up are important aspects of care but assessing neurological status takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and recovery.

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