Nursing Elites

1. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

• A. I have problems with diarrhea.
• B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
• C. I have diminished sexual function.
• D. I often feel jittery.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

2. A nurse is caring for an adolescent client who has full-thickness burns on his leg. The client expresses concern about his future. Which of the following is a therapeutic response by the nurse?

• A. “You’re concerned about what will happen when you leave the hospital?”
• B. “If you work hard on your physical therapy, you won’t need to worry.”
• C. “You shouldn’t worry about the future so you can concentrate on getting well.”
• D. “Why are you concerned even though everyone is here to help you?”

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A, “You’re concerned about what will happen when you leave the hospital?” This response acknowledges the client's concerns about the future, validating their feelings and encouraging open communication. It shows empathy and allows the client to express their worries. Choice B minimizes the client's concerns by suggesting that they won't need to worry if they work hard on physical therapy, which may invalidate their emotions. Choice C dismisses the client's worry, implying that they should ignore their concerns to focus on getting well. Choice D uses a confrontational approach by questioning the client's concerns, which may discourage open communication and make the client feel defensive.

3. When planning to perform passive range-of-motion exercises for a client, what action should a healthcare professional take?

• A. Repeat each joint motion five times during each session.
• B. Perform the exercises quickly to save time.
• C. Focus only on the most affected joints.
• D. Assess the client's range of motion before starting.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to repeat each joint motion five times during each session. Repetition is crucial to maintaining joint flexibility and muscle function. By ensuring each joint motion is repeated, the client can benefit fully from the passive range-of-motion exercises. Choice B is incorrect because quick performance may compromise technique and risk injury. Choice C is incorrect as neglecting less affected joints can lead to imbalances and hinder overall progress. Choice D is incorrect as assessing the client's range of motion beforehand is vital, but it is not the immediate action to take during the exercise session.

4. When assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Inspect chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle.
• B. Auscultate the entire lung region to assess lung sounds.
• C. Focus auscultation on the upper lung fields.
• D. Assess the patient at least every 4 hours.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse when assessing the respiratory system for complications of immobility is to auscultate the entire lung region. This approach allows the nurse to identify any diminished breath sounds, crackles, or wheezes that may indicate respiratory issues. Inspecting chest wall movements primarily during the expiratory cycle (Choice A) may not provide a comprehensive assessment of lung sounds. Focusing auscultation on the upper lung fields (Choice C) may miss important findings in the lower lung fields. Assessing the patient at least every 4 hours (Choice D) is important for monitoring overall patient condition but does not specifically address the assessment of respiratory complications related to immobility.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Hemoglobin
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.

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