a 42 year old male client refuses to take propranolol hydrochloride inderal as prescribewhich client statement from the assessment data is likely to e
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.

2. A client's infusion of normal saline infiltrated earlier today, and approximately 500 ml of saline infused into the subcutaneous tissue. The client is now complaining of excruciating arm pain and demanding 'stronger pain medications.' What initial action is most important for the LPN/LVN to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important initial action for the LPN/LVN to take in this situation is to measure the pulse volume and capillary refill distal to the infiltration. This assessment helps evaluate the severity of the infiltration and the circulation in the affected arm. Asking about past history of drug abuse or addiction (Choice A) is not the priority when addressing acute arm pain and infiltration. Compressing the infiltrated tissue (Choice C) may exacerbate the pain and is not recommended as the first step. Evaluating the extent of ecchymosis (Choice D) is not as critical as assessing the circulation in the affected arm, which is better addressed by measuring pulse volume and capillary refill.

3. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.

4. A female client's significant other has been at her bedside providing reassurances and support for the past 3 days, as desired by the client. The client's estranged husband arrives and demands that the significant other not be allowed to visit or be given condition updates. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to communicate the client's wishes to all members of the multidisciplinary team. This action respects the client's autonomy and maintains her comfort by ensuring that her desires regarding visitation and support are known and upheld. Obtaining a perception from the healthcare provider regarding visitation privileges (Choice A) may not fully consider the client's preferences. Requesting a consultation with the ethics committee (Choice B) may be premature and could delay prompt resolution of the issue. Encouraging the client to speak with her husband (Choice C) may not be appropriate, as the husband's demands are disrupting the client's care and comfort, and the client may not feel safe or comfortable doing so.

5. An older adult client just diagnosed with colon cancer asks the nurse what the primary care provider is going to do. The provider will be making rounds within the hour. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assisting the client in preparing questions is the most appropriate action as it helps ensure that all concerns are addressed during the provider's visit. By helping the client write down questions, the nurse empowers the client to actively participate in their care and communicate effectively with the provider. Reassuring the client, while well-intentioned, may not address the specific questions or fears the client has. Explaining the procedure in detail may not be what the client is seeking at this moment, as their primary concern is about the provider's actions. Directing the client to search for information online is not recommended as it may lead to confusion or misinformation, and the information may not be tailored to the client's specific situation.

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