Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which laboratory value should be monitored closely to assess for complications?

• A. Serum sodium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Blood glucose. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial for clients receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) due to the high glucose content in TPN solutions. TPN delivers essential nutrients, including glucose, directly into the bloodstream. Clients on TPN are at risk of developing hyperglycemia due to the concentrated glucose infusion. Therefore, close monitoring of blood glucose levels is necessary to detect and prevent hyperglycemia-related complications such as osmotic diuresis, hyperosmolarity, and electrolyte imbalances. While serum sodium, serum calcium, and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels are important parameters in various clinical scenarios, they are not specifically associated with TPN administration. These values are not the primary indicators to assess for complications in clients receiving TPN.

2. A mother tells the nurse that her 2-year-old toddler has temper tantrums and says 'no' every time the mother tries to help them get dressed. The nurse should recognize the toddler is manifesting which of the following stages of development?

• A. Trying to increase independence.
• B. Developing a sense of trust.
• C. Establishing a new identity.
• D. Attempting to master a skill.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Trying to increase independence. Toddlers around the age of 2 often exhibit behaviors like temper tantrums and saying 'no' as they are asserting their independence and autonomy. This behavior is a normal part of their developmental stage where they are starting to explore and assert their own preferences and desires. Choice B, developing a sense of trust, is more relevant to infants during the trust vs. mistrust stage. Choice C, establishing a new identity, is typically associated with adolescence and identity formation. Choice D, attempting to master a skill, is more indicative of a child trying to learn and develop new abilities rather than the behavior described in the scenario.

3. A client is admitted with infective endocarditis (IE). Which symptom would alert the nurse to a complication of this condition?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Heart murmur
• C. Macular rash
• D. Hemorrhage

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A new or changed heart murmur is a common sign of valve involvement in infective endocarditis, indicating a complication such as valve damage or regurgitation. Dyspnea is more commonly associated with respiratory or cardiac conditions not directly related to infective endocarditis. A macular rash is not a typical symptom of infective endocarditis, suggesting other conditions like infectious diseases. Hemorrhage is not a direct complication of infective endocarditis but may occur due to factors such as anticoagulant therapy or underlying bleeding disorders.

4. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

• A. 31 gtt/min.
• B. 62 gtt/min.
• C. 93 gtt/min.
• D. 124 gtt/min.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client who has just been diagnosed with myasthenia gravis. Which symptom should the healthcare provider expect to observe?

• A. Muscle weakness
• B. Joint pain
• C. Vision changes
• D. Skin rash

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Muscle weakness is a hallmark symptom of myasthenia gravis, a neuromuscular disorder characterized by impaired neuromuscular transmission. This results in muscle weakness, particularly in skeletal muscles that control eye movements, facial expressions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking. Joint pain (Choice B) is not a typical symptom of myasthenia gravis and is more commonly associated with conditions like arthritis. Vision changes (Choice C) may occur in conditions affecting the eyes, but they are not specific to myasthenia gravis. Skin rash (Choice D) is also not a typical manifestation of myasthenia gravis. Therefore, the correct answer is muscle weakness (Choice A).

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