Nursing Elites

1. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?

• A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
• B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
• C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
• D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a client with heart failure. Which assessment finding would prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and contact the healthcare provider?

• A. Heart rate of 55 beats per minute
• B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute
• D. Blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 60 beats per minute is a contraindication for administering digoxin, as it can lead to bradycardia. Bradycardia is a common adverse effect associated with digoxin toxicity. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg, respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute, and blood glucose level of 150 mg/dL are within normal limits and would not warrant withholding the medication or contacting the healthcare provider in this context. Therefore, a heart rate of 55 beats per minute would prompt the nurse to withhold digoxin and notify the healthcare provider.

3. During the initial morning assessment, a male client denies dysuria but reports that his urine appears dark amber. Which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement?

• A. Provide additional coffee on the client's breakfast tray.
• B. Exchange the client's grape juice for cranberry juice.
• C. Bring the client additional fruit at mid-morning.
• D. Encourage additional oral intake of juices and water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging additional oral intake of juices and water is the appropriate intervention in this scenario. Dark amber urine can indicate concentrated urine due to dehydration or other factors. By encouraging more fluids, the LPN/LVN can help dilute the urine, reducing the concentration of pigments causing the dark color. Providing additional coffee (Choice A) would not necessarily increase hydration and could potentially have a diuretic effect. Exchanging grape juice for cranberry juice (Choice B) does not address the core issue of hydration. Bringing additional fruit (Choice C) may provide some fluid, but encouraging specific fluids like juices and water would be more effective in diluting the urine.

4. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?

• A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
• B. Morphine sulfate
• C. Meperidine (Demerol)
• D. Promethazine (Phenergan)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.

5. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which assessment finding should the healthcare provider report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Swelling and redness in the affected leg
• B. Pain in the affected leg
• C. Warmth and tenderness in the affected leg
• D. A positive Homans' sign

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A positive Homans' sign is a classic sign associated with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and indicates the presence of a blood clot. This finding is crucial to report to the healthcare provider promptly for further evaluation and treatment. Swelling, redness, pain, warmth, and tenderness in the affected leg are common signs of DVT, but a positive Homans' sign specifically points towards a potential blood clot, making it the priority finding to be reported. Reporting other symptoms may also be important, but a positive Homans' sign is more specific to DVT and requires immediate attention.

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