HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.
2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is admitted with swelling and pain in the left leg. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Apply warm compresses to the affected leg.
- B. Elevate the left leg above the level of the heart.
- C. Measure the circumference of the left leg.
- D. Administer pain medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Measuring the circumference of the left leg is the most appropriate action for an LPN/LVN when assessing a client with a history of DVT and presenting with swelling and pain in the left leg. This measurement helps to assess the extent of swelling objectively and monitor changes in the client's condition. Applying warm compresses (Choice A) may worsen the condition by potentially promoting clot development. Elevating the left leg above the level of the heart (Choice B) is generally recommended for DVT to improve venous return, but measuring the circumference is more appropriate in this scenario. Administering pain medication (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue and should not be the initial action taken.
3. The patient refuses a morning bath, stating a preference for evening baths. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
- A. Defer the bath until evening and pass on the information to the next shift.
- B. Tell the patient that daily morning baths are the 'normal' routine.
- C. Explain the importance of maintaining morning hygiene practices.
- D. Cancel hygiene for the day and attempt again in the morning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to respect the patient's preference and autonomy. By deferring the bath until evening, the nurse acknowledges and accommodates the patient's routine, promoting patient-centered care. Choice B could be seen as dismissive of the patient's preference and may not foster a therapeutic relationship. Choice C, while important, doesn't address the patient's current refusal. Choice D is not respectful of the patient's autonomy and could lead to increased resistance. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate and patient-centered approach.
4. A client is being treated for diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value would be most concerning?
- A. Blood glucose of 350 mg/dL
- B. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
- C. Arterial pH of 7.20
- D. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the most concerning laboratory value is an arterial pH of 7.20. An arterial pH of 7.20 indicates severe acidosis, which is a critical condition requiring immediate intervention. This pH level reflects a significant imbalance in the body's acid-base status, potentially leading to serious complications. High blood glucose levels (choice A) are expected in DKA but do not directly indicate the severity of acidosis. A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L (choice B) is low but not as immediately critical as a pH of 7.20. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L (choice D) is elevated, which can occur in DKA due to insulin deficiency, but it is not the most concerning value in this scenario.
5. A client is admitted to a voluntary hospital mental health unit due to suicidal ideation. The client has been on the unit for 2 days and now states, 'I demand to be released now!' The appropriate action is for the nurse to:
- A. You cannot be released because you are still suicidal.
- B. You can be released only if you sign a no-suicide contract.
- C. Let's discuss your decision to leave and then we can prepare you for discharge.
- D. You have a right to sign out as soon as we get an order from the healthcare provider's discharge order.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to engage the client in a discussion about their decision to leave and then prepare them for discharge. This approach allows the nurse to assess the client's current state, address concerns, and plan for a safe discharge. Option A is incorrect because it does not involve a therapeutic communication approach and may escalate the situation. Option B is incorrect as it places a condition on the client for release, which is not recommended in this situation. Option D is incorrect as it does not prioritize the client's autonomy and right to make decisions about their care.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access