HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client with Guillain-Barre syndrome is in a non-responsive state, yet vital signs are stable and breathing is independent. What should the nurse document to most accurately describe the client's condition?
- A. Comatose, breathing unlabored
- B. Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular
- C. Appears to be sleeping, vital signs stable
- D. Glasgow Coma Scale 13, no ventilator required
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Glasgow Coma Scale 8, respirations regular.' A Glasgow Coma Scale of 8 with regular respirations accurately describes a non-responsive state with independent breathing. Choice A is incorrect because 'comatose' implies a deep state of unconsciousness, which may not be accurate in this case. Choice C is incorrect as stating the client 'appears to be sleeping' may not accurately reflect the severity of the situation. Choice D is incorrect because a Glasgow Coma Scale of 13 would not typically correspond to a non-responsive state.
2. A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give the client?
- A. "Rashes are very common, especially if you have dry skin. Did it go away on its own?"
- B. "Virtually all medications have adverse effects. It sounds like this could have been an adverse effect of the antibiotic."
- C. "It's unlikely that your doctor will prescribe an antibiotic for what seems to be a minor viral infection, so we shouldn't be concerned about that rash."
- D. "We need to document the exact medication you were taking because you might be allergic to it."
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. If a client reports developing a rash when taking a specific medication, even if they are not aware of any allergies, it is crucial to document this information. This is necessary to prevent future allergic reactions. Identifying the exact medication that caused the rash is essential as the client could have an allergy to it. Providing this information allows healthcare providers to avoid prescribing the same medication again, which could potentially lead to more severe allergic reactions or life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the importance of documenting the specific medication that caused the adverse reaction or the potential risks of repeating the medication. Simply attributing the rash to common occurrences, adverse effects of medications in general, or assuming the rash is insignificant in the current context can overlook the critical aspect of identifying and avoiding allergens.
3. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being educated about lifestyle changes. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will reduce my salt intake.
- B. I will exercise for 30 minutes most days of the week.
- C. I will drink alcohol only on the weekends.
- D. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with COPD should limit alcohol intake, not just to weekends, to effectively manage their condition. Excessive alcohol consumption can worsen respiratory symptoms and interfere with medications. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate and beneficial for clients with COPD. Salt intake reduction helps in managing fluid retention and blood pressure. Regular exercise improves lung function and overall health. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial for individuals with COPD as hypertension is a common comorbidity.
4. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?
- A. A patient who is afebrile
- B. A patient who is diaphoretic
- C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
- D. A patient with adequate skin turgor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.
5. When admitting a 5-month-old who has vomited 9 times in the past 6 hours, what should the healthcare provider observe for signs of which overall imbalance?
- A. Metabolic acidosis
- B. Metabolic alkalosis
- C. Increased serum hemoglobin levels
- D. Decreased serum potassium levels
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a 5-month-old infant vomits multiple times, there is a risk of developing metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of stomach acid. Metabolic alkalosis is characterized by elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. It is caused by the loss of hydrogen ions from the body, often through vomiting. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is unlikely in this scenario because it is more commonly associated with conditions like renal failure or diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice C, increased serum hemoglobin levels, is not typically a direct consequence of vomiting. Choice D, decreased serum potassium levels, may occur with vomiting but is not the primary concern when a patient is vomiting excessively.
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