a nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain an assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 392c 102f heart ra
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions

1. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.

2. A client is scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram. Which of the following actions is appropriate for the nurse to include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to include before an intravenous pyelogram is ensuring the client is free of metal objects. Metal objects can interfere with the imaging procedure and may need to be removed to prevent artifacts. Monitoring for pain in the suprapubic region (choice A) is not directly related to the procedure and is not a standard pre-procedure action. Administering oral contrast (choice C) is more common for other imaging studies like a CT scan, not an intravenous pyelogram. Assisting with a bowel cleansing (choice D) is not typically required before an intravenous pyelogram.

3. At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 0100 on the client's second postoperative night, the nurse should address the client's inability to sleep. Providing a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic is appropriate in this situation to help the client rest. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the room and closing the door does not directly address the client's sleep concern. Choice B is not the priority at this moment since the client's main issue is insomnia, not pain. Choice D, while encouraging a non-stimulating activity, does not provide immediate relief for the client's sleeplessness as a sedative-hypnotic would.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for several clients who are receiving oxygen therapy. Which client should the provider assess most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving 100% oxygen via a partial rebreathing mask, there is a higher risk for oxygen toxicity due to the higher concentration of oxygen delivered. This client should be assessed most frequently for manifestations of oxygen toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to result in oxygen toxicity compared to 100% oxygen delivery via a partial rebreathing mask.

5. A nurse is preparing an education program for staff about advocacy. What information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Advocacy in nursing involves ensuring clients' safety, health, and rights. Nurses advocate for their clients by promoting autonomy, informed decision-making, and protecting their rights. Choice B is incorrect because advocacy goes beyond just supporting client complaints; it encompasses a broader scope of ensuring holistic care and well-being. Choice C is incorrect as advocacy does not mean making all decisions for the client but rather empowering them to make informed choices. Choice D is incorrect as advocacy is a crucial component of nursing responsibilities, as it involves standing up for clients' best interests and ensuring their rights are respected.

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