Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse’s priority action?

• A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes prior to dressing change.
• B. Change the dressing quickly to minimize pain.
• C. Provide reassurance to the client that the pain will pass.
• D. Use a less painful dressing technique.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.

2. The debilitated patient is resisting attempts by the nurse to provide oral hygiene. Which action will the nurse take next?

• A. Insert an oral airway.
• B. Place the patient in a flat, supine position.
• C. Use undiluted hydrogen peroxide as a cleaner.
• D. Quickly proceed without talking to the patient.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a debilitated patient resists oral hygiene, the nurse should prioritize safety. Inserting an oral airway helps keep the mouth open, ensuring adequate access for oral care procedures while preventing any accidental biting or closure of the airway. Placing the patient in a flat, supine position may not address the resistance issue and can lead to aspiration risk. Using undiluted hydrogen peroxide is not recommended due to its potential harmful effects on oral tissues. Proceeding quickly without communication can escalate the situation and compromise patient-centered care.

3. A client has been admitted to the hospital with severe diarrhea. The nurse should monitor the client for which complication?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Severe diarrhea can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the loss of bicarbonate. When there is excessive loss of bicarbonate through diarrhea, the pH of the blood decreases, leading to metabolic acidosis. Metabolic alkalosis (Choice B) is not typically associated with severe diarrhea as it involves elevated pH and bicarbonate levels. Hyperkalemia (Choice C) is less likely with severe diarrhea as potassium is often lost along with fluids. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not a common complication of severe diarrhea; instead, hypocalcemia may occur due to malabsorption of calcium.

4. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Reassure the client that this is not a normal finding.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• C. Document the finding in the client’s chart.
• D. Encourage the client to seek medical attention.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

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