HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?
- A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
- B. A mole with a regular border.
- C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
- D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.
2. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
3. A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?
- A. “I am afraid to walk if it hurts too much.”
- B. “I don’t understand why I need this surgery.”
- C. “I don’t want my family helping me after the surgery.”
- D. “I am afraid the scar will make me look disfigured.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.
4. During an admission assessment for an older adult client, what is the priority action for the nurse after gathering data and reviewing systems?
- A. Orient the client to their room.
- B. Conduct a client care conference.
- C. Review medical prescriptions.
- D. Develop a plan of care.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse after completing the assessment and review of systems for an older adult client is to orient them to their room. This is crucial for ensuring the client's comfort and safety in the new environment. While reviewing medical prescriptions and developing a plan of care are important aspects of the admission process, they can be done after the client has been oriented to their room.
5. A healthcare professional is planning to perform ear irrigation on an adult client with impacted cerumen. Which of the following should the professional plan to take?
- A. Wearing sterile gloves while performing irrigation
- B. Positioning the client with the affected side down following irrigation
- C. Using cool fluid to irrigate the ear canal
- D. Pulling the pinna downward during irrigation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Positioning the client with the affected side down following irrigation is crucial as it helps facilitate drainage of the dislodged cerumen and any remaining irrigation solution. This position allows gravity to assist in the removal of the loosened debris. Wearing sterile gloves is a standard precaution in healthcare procedures to prevent infection but is not specific to ear irrigation. Using body-temperature water or a solution at a slightly warmer temperature is recommended to prevent vertigo and discomfort, so using cool fluid is incorrect. Pulling the pinna upward and backward, not downward, straightens the ear canal for adults to facilitate the irrigation process, making choice D incorrect.
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