a nurse is performing a skin assessment for a client who expresses concern about skin cancer what findings should the nurse identify as a potential in
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank

1. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.

2. A client with a diagnosis of Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) has died. Which type of precautions is the appropriate type to use when performing postmortem care?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Contact precautions are necessary when performing postmortem care on a client with MRSA to prevent the spread of infection. Contact precautions involve using barriers like gloves and gowns to limit direct contact with the deceased individual's body fluids and tissues. Airborne precautions are used for pathogens that are transmitted through the air, like tuberculosis. Droplet precautions are for pathogens that are transmitted through respiratory droplets, such as influenza. Compromised host precautions are not a recognized standard precaution type and are not applicable in this scenario.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the client who has new onset dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. This sudden dyspnea could indicate a serious complication like a pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with a low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important concerns but are not as immediately life-threatening as potential pulmonary embolism indicated by sudden dyspnea postoperatively.

4. When caring for a client receiving warfarin sodium (Coumadin), which lab test would the nurse monitor to determine therapeutic response to the drug?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the therapeutic response to warfarin therapy. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, which prolongs the PT. Monitoring PT helps determine if the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because bleeding time, coagulation time, and partial thromboplastin time are not specifically used to monitor the therapeutic response to warfarin. Bleeding time assesses platelet function, coagulation time is a general term and not a specific test, and partial thromboplastin time is more relevant in monitoring heparin therapy, not warfarin.

5. A health care provider has prescribed isoniazid (Laniazid) for a client. Which instruction should the LPN give the client about this medication?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When taking isoniazid, alcohol consumption should be avoided as it can increase the risk of liver damage, potentially leading to drug-induced hepatitis. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Prolonged use of isoniazid does not typically cause dark concentrated urine; it is not necessary to take the medication on an empty stomach for optimal absorption; and it is not recommended to take isoniazid with aluminum hydroxide to minimize GI upset.

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