HESI LPN
HESI Pediatrics Quizlet
1. During a primary survey of a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, what action should the nurse take first?
- A. Inspect the child's skin color.
- B. Assess for a patent airway.
- C. Observe for symmetric breathing.
- D. Palpate the child's pulse.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When managing a child with partial thickness burns over the upper body areas, the priority action during the primary survey is to assess for a patent airway. This step is crucial as burns in this region can lead to airway compromise, potentially causing rapid deterioration in the child's condition. Checking for a patent airway ensures that the child can breathe adequately, which is essential for oxygenation and ventilation. Inspecting the child's skin color (Choice A) is an important assessment but should follow ensuring a patent airway. Observing for symmetric breathing (Choice C) is relevant, but the immediate focus should be on securing the airway. Palpating the child's pulse (Choice D) is also a vital assessment, but in this scenario, the priority is to assess and maintain a clear airway to support respiratory function and oxygen delivery.
2. A client has a new diagnosis of hypothyroidism. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Provide a high-calorie diet.
- B. Encourage frequent rest periods.
- C. Restrict fluid intake.
- D. Increase iodine intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with hypothyroidism is to encourage frequent rest periods. Hypothyroidism often leads to fatigue, making rest essential for recovery and symptom management. Providing a high-calorie diet is not necessary unless the client has gained weight due to hypothyroidism. Restricting fluid intake is not indicated unless there are specific medical reasons for it. Increasing iodine intake is not recommended for primary hypothyroidism, as it is typically caused by autoimmune thyroiditis or other factors rather than iodine deficiency.
3. Which cardiac defects are associated with tetralogy of Fallot?
- A. Right ventricular hypertrophy, atrial and ventricular defects, and mitral valve stenosis
- B. Origin of the aorta from the right ventricle and of the pulmonary artery from the left ventricle
- C. Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta
- D. Altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy, and an atrial septal defect
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Right ventricular hypertrophy, ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, and overriding aorta are the cardiac defects associated with Tetralogy of Fallot. In Tetralogy of Fallot, these specific abnormalities contribute to the classic features of the condition. Choice A is incorrect as it includes mitral valve stenosis, which is not typically part of Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice B describes transposition of the great arteries, not Tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D mentions an altered connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta, which is not a defining characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot.
4. A client is recovering from a right-sided mastectomy and is concerned about lymphedema. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching to minimize this risk?
- A. Encourage wearing tight clothing on the affected arm.
- B. Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm.
- C. Recommend the client sleep on the affected side.
- D. Suggest frequent massage of the affected arm.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Advise against lifting heavy objects with the affected arm. Lifting heavy objects with the affected arm can increase the risk of lymphedema. It is important for clients to avoid activities that strain the affected arm to minimize the risk of developing lymphedema. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because wearing tight clothing on the affected arm, sleeping on the affected side, and frequent massage of the affected arm can potentially worsen lymphedema or impede the recovery process. Tight clothing can impede lymphatic flow, sleeping on the affected side can restrict circulation, and frequent massage can exacerbate swelling in the arm.
5. A 20-year-old male client is diagnosed with Ewing’s sarcoma following an examination for a knee injury. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide the client?
- A. Take analgesics regularly to manage pain
- B. Notify the healthcare provider if the swelling worsens
- C. Avoid weight-bearing on the affected knee until the injury heals
- D. Seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for the nurse to provide the client is to seek treatment for the sarcoma immediately. Ewing's sarcoma is a type of cancer that necessitates prompt and aggressive treatment for the best possible outcome. While managing pain (Choice A) and monitoring swelling (Choice B) are important, addressing the underlying sarcoma is the priority. Instructing the client to avoid weight-bearing (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of Ewing's sarcoma and may not be the most critical instruction at this point.