a nurse is preparing for change of shift which document or tools should the nurse use to communicate
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Fundamentals HESI

1. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.

2. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, what should be the next action by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this situation is to discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor. By doing so, the nurse can address their emotions professionally and seek guidance on how to manage the situation effectively. This approach allows the nurse to receive support and potentially gain insights on how to navigate interactions with the manipulative client. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues causing the reluctance and can impact the quality of care provided. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client directly about negative behaviors may escalate the situation and harm the therapeutic relationship. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario; it is essential to address the nurse's feelings first before considering behavior modification plans.

3. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

4. A client has been coughing for 3 weeks and is beginning to cough up blood. The client has manifestations of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tuberculosis. Coughing up blood (hemoptysis) is a key symptom of tuberculosis. Tuberculosis is a respiratory infection caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The other options are incorrect because an allergic reaction typically involves symptoms like itching, hives, or swelling, not coughing up blood. Ringworm is a fungal skin infection characterized by a red, circular rash, and systemic lupus erythematosus is an autoimmune disease that primarily affects joints and skin without causing hemoptysis.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

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