HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?
- A. SBAR
- B. SOAP
- C. PIE
- D. DAR
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.
2. In the Emergency Department, a female client discloses that she was raped last night. Which question is most important for the nurse to ask?
- A. Does she know the person who raped her?
- B. Has she taken a bath since the rape occurred?
- C. Is the place where she lives a safe place?
- D. Did she report the rape to the police department?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important question for the nurse to ask in this situation is whether the client knows the person who raped her. This question is crucial for assessing additional safety concerns, providing appropriate support, and determining the need for forensic evidence collection. Choices B, C, and D are not as critical in the immediate assessment and response to a rape victim. Asking about bathing, the safety of her home, or reporting to the police may be important but are secondary to identifying the perpetrator for safety and legal reasons.
3. A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
- A. “Surfactant improves the ability of your baby’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide.”
- B. “The drug keeps your baby from requiring too much sedation.”
- C. “Surfactant is used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea.”
- D. “Your baby needs this medication to fight a possible respiratory tract infection.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Artificial surfactant can be administered as an adjunct to oxygen and ventilation therapy for premature infants with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS). It helps improve respiratory compliance by aiding in the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide until the infant can produce enough surfactant naturally. The correct explanation to the parents would be that surfactant therapy enhances the baby’s lung function by facilitating the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide. Choice B is incorrect because surfactant therapy does not affect sedation needs. Choice C is inaccurate as surfactant is not used to reduce episodes of periodic apnea. Choice D is incorrect as surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections; it specifically targets improving lung function in RDS.
4. What instruction should the nurse provide for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA who has a prescription for contact precautions?
- A. Allow visitors with precautions in place
- B. Wear sterile gloves when handling the client's body fluid
- C. Have the client wear a mask whenever someone enters the room
- D. Don a gown and gloves when entering the room
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for a UAP caring for a client with MRSA under contact precautions is to don a gown and gloves when entering the room. Wearing a gown and gloves is necessary to prevent the transmission of MRSA. Choice A is incorrect because visitors may be allowed with proper precautions in place. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes the client has body fluid precautions, which is not specified. Choice C is incorrect as it does not address the UAP's protective measures but rather focuses on the client wearing a mask.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
- B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
- C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
- D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.