Nursing Elites

1. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?

• A. SBAR
• B. SOAP
• C. PIE
• D. DAR

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.

2. A nurse in a provider's office is collecting information from an older adult who reports that he has been taking acetaminophen 500 mg/day for severe joint pain. The nurse should instruct the client that large doses of acetaminophen could cause which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Liver damage
• B. Renal failure
• C. Gastric bleeding
• D. Heart attack

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Large doses of acetaminophen can cause liver damage, which is a known adverse effect of the medication. Acetaminophen is metabolized in the liver, and excessive amounts can overwhelm the liver's ability to process it, leading to hepatotoxicity. Renal failure (Choice B) is not typically associated with acetaminophen use. Gastric bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) rather than acetaminophen. Heart attack (Choice D) is not a recognized adverse effect of acetaminophen, which primarily affects the liver when taken in large amounts.

3. While auscultating the anterior chest of a client newly admitted to a medical-surgical unit, a nurse listens to the audio clip of breath sounds through her stethoscope. What type of breath sounds does the nurse hear?

• A. Crackles
• B. Rhonchi
• C. Friction rub
• D. Normal breath sounds

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Normal breath sounds. In the scenario described, the nurse hears normal bronchovesicular breath sounds, which are moderate in intensity and resemble blowing as air moves through the larger airways during inspiration and expiration. Crackles (choice A) are typically heard in conditions like heart failure or pneumonia and are not present in this case. Rhonchi (choice B) are low-pitched, continuous sounds often associated with conditions like chronic bronchitis or bronchiectasis. Friction rub (choice C) is a grating sound usually heard in conditions like pleurisy or pericarditis, which is not the case here where normal breath sounds are heard.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 83 gtt/min
• B. 125 gtt/min
• C. 100 gtt/min
• D. 75 gtt/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL ÷ 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.

5. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). What side effect should the healthcare provider report immediately?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea and vomiting
• D. Gingival hyperplasia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gingival hyperplasia is a significant side effect associated with phenytoin therapy. It is characterized by an overgrowth of gum tissue, which can lead to issues such as difficulty in speaking, eating, and maintaining proper oral hygiene. This condition can progress rapidly and may require immediate intervention by the healthcare provider to prevent further complications. Increased appetite, dry mouth, and nausea/vomiting are common side effects of various medications, but they are not as urgent or serious as gingival hyperplasia in a client taking phenytoin.

Similar Questions