Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

2. A healthcare professional is administering 1 L of 0.9% sodium chloride to a client who is postoperative and has fluid volume deficit. Which of the following changes should the healthcare professional identify as an indication that the treatment was successful?

• A. Decrease in heart rate
• B. Fluid volume deficit causes tachycardia
• C. Decrease in blood pressure
• D. Increase in respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate that the fluid volume deficit is improving. In cases of fluid volume deficit, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion. Therefore, a decrease in heart rate after fluid resuscitation suggests that the body's perfusion status is improving. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because fluid volume deficit typically causes tachycardia, not a decrease in heart rate, and would not result in a decrease in blood pressure or an increase in respiratory rate as primary signs of improvement.

3. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?

• A. Testicular examination
• B. Blood glucose
• C. Fecal occult blood
• D. Prostate-specific antigen

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.

4. A healthcare professional is supervising the logrolling of a patient. To which patient is the healthcare professional most likely providing care?

• A. A patient with neck surgery
• B. A patient with hypostatic pneumonia
• C. A patient with a total knee replacement
• D. A patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Logrolling is a technique used to move a patient as a single unit to prevent twisting or bending of the spine. Patients who have undergone neck surgery require special care to ensure the spinal column remains in straight alignment to prevent further injury. Therefore, the correct answer is a patient with neck surgery. Choice B, a patient with hypostatic pneumonia, does not require logrolling, as it is a condition affecting the lungs, not the spine. Choice C, a patient with a total knee replacement, does not typically necessitate logrolling, as the procedure focuses on the knee joint, not the spine. Choice D, a patient with a stage IV pressure ulcer, requires wound care but does not necessarily involve logrolling unless the ulcer is located in a critical area that requires special handling.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
• D. Crepitus around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.

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