a nurse is assessing a clients extraocular eye movements which of the following should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client’s extraocular eye movements. Which of the following should the professional do?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action when assessing extraocular eye movements. This technique assesses the movement of the eyes in all directions and helps to test cranial nerves 3, 4, and 6, which control eye movements. Choice B is incorrect as the distance mentioned is not relevant for assessing extraocular eye movements. Choice C is incorrect as both eyes need to be assessed independently. Choice D is incorrect as positioning the client 6.1 m (20 feet) away from the Snellen chart is related to visual acuity testing, not extraocular eye movements.

2. The healthcare professional caring for a patient who is immobile frequently checks for impaired skin integrity. What is the rationale for this action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The rationale behind checking for impaired skin integrity in an immobile patient is that pressure reduces circulation to the affected tissue. Prolonged pressure on specific body parts can lead to reduced blood flow to those areas, causing tissue damage and potentially leading to pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because inadequate blood flow causing decreased tissue ischemia, limited caloric intake leading to thicker skin, and decreased verbalization of skin care needs are not directly related to the rationale for checking for impaired skin integrity in immobile patients.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 750 mL of 0.9% sodium chloride IV to infuse over 7 hr. The professional should set the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hr? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, divide the total volume (750 mL) by the total time (7 hr). 750 ÷ 7 ≈ 107 mL/hr. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the infusion rate based on the total volume and time. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate in this scenario.

4. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.

5. A client who is postoperative and has paralytic ileus is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following abdominal assessments should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with paralytic ileus, absent bowel sounds with distention are expected due to decreased or absent bowel motility. This is a key characteristic of paralytic ileus, where the bowel is unable to contract and move contents along the digestive tract. Hyperactive bowel sounds (choice B) are more indicative of increased peristalsis, which is not typically seen in paralytic ileus. Normal bowel sounds (choice C) may not be present in a client with paralytic ileus. High-pitched bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with paralytic ileus. Therefore, the correct assessment finding in this scenario is absent bowel sounds with distention.

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