Nursing Elites

1. A caregiver is talking with the caregivers of a 10-year-old child who is concerned that their child is becoming secretive, including closing the door when showering and dressing. Which of the following responses should the caregiver make?

• A. “Perhaps you should try to find out what is happening behind those closed doors.”
• B. “Suggest that the door be left ajar for safety reasons.”
• C. “At this age, children tend to become modest and value their privacy.”
• D. “You should establish a disciplinary plan to stop this behavior.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: “At this age, children tend to become modest and value their privacy.” During the developmental stage around 10 years old, children often start to value their privacy more and exhibit behaviors like closing doors when showering or dressing. It is a normal part of growing up and developing a sense of modesty. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests prying into the child's privacy, which may be counterproductive and invasive. Choice B is not the best response as it focuses on safety but fails to address the child's developmental stage and need for privacy. Choice D is also incorrect as it advocates for discipline without recognizing the normal developmental behavior of children at this age.

2. A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?

• A. Impaired balance
• B. Hemiplegia
• C. Muscle sprain
• D. Lower extremity paralysis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will take my medication at the same time every day.
• C. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent gum bleeding.
• D. I can take aspirin if I have a headache.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: I can take aspirin if I have a headache.' This statement indicates a need for further teaching because aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Clients on warfarin therapy should avoid taking aspirin or any other medications that can increase the risk of bleeding without consulting their healthcare provider. Choices A, B, and C are correct statements that demonstrate understanding of warfarin therapy and its potential side effects. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K helps maintain the effectiveness of warfarin, taking medication at the same time every day ensures consistent therapeutic levels, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding, which can be a side effect of warfarin therapy.

4. A client is receiving discharge teaching about a new prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I should avoid foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
• B. I will check my pulse before taking the medication.
• C. I should avoid taking antacids simultaneously with this medication.
• D. I will take the medication at the same time every day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because clients taking digoxin should avoid foods high in potassium. High potassium levels can potentiate the effects of digoxin, leading to toxicity. Choices B, C, and D are correct statements regarding digoxin administration. Checking the pulse before taking the medication helps monitor for signs of digoxin toxicity. Avoiding taking antacids simultaneously prevents interactions that may reduce digoxin absorption. Taking the medication at the same time every day helps maintain a consistent blood level, ensuring optimal therapeutic effects.

5. When explaining the fecal occult blood testing procedure to a client, which of the following information should be included?

• A. Eating more protein is not necessary before testing.
• B. Multiple stool specimens may be required for testing.
• C. A red color change indicates a positive test.
• D. The specimen must not be contaminated with urine.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. When performing fecal occult blood testing, it is crucial to inform the client that the specimen must not be contaminated with urine to prevent false results. Choices A and B are incorrect because eating more protein is not required before testing, and multiple stool specimens may be necessary for accurate results, respectively. Additionally, regarding choice C, a red color change, not blue, indicates a positive test result, making it an incorrect option.

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