Nursing Elites

1. A caregiver is talking with the caregivers of a 10-year-old child who is concerned that their child is becoming secretive, including closing the door when showering and dressing. Which of the following responses should the caregiver make?

• A. “Perhaps you should try to find out what is happening behind those closed doors.”
• B. “Suggest that the door be left ajar for safety reasons.”
• C. “At this age, children tend to become modest and value their privacy.”
• D. “You should establish a disciplinary plan to stop this behavior.”

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is C: “At this age, children tend to become modest and value their privacy.” During the developmental stage around 10 years old, children often start to value their privacy more and exhibit behaviors like closing doors when showering or dressing. It is a normal part of growing up and developing a sense of modesty. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests prying into the child's privacy, which may be counterproductive and invasive. Choice B is not the best response as it focuses on safety but fails to address the child's developmental stage and need for privacy. Choice D is also incorrect as it advocates for discipline without recognizing the normal developmental behavior of children at this age.

2. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

3. A client has a new prescription for parenteral nutrition (PN) in 20% dextrose and fat emulsions. Which of the following is an appropriate action to include in the plan of care?

• A. Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
• B. Change the PN infusion bag every 24 hours.
• C. Prepare the client for a central venous line.
• D. Administer the PN and fat emulsion together.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client requires parenteral nutrition (PN) with a high dextrose concentration, such as 20%, it typically has a high osmolarity. High osmolarity solutions should be infused through a central venous line to prevent peripheral vein irritation and potential complications. Therefore, preparing the client for a central venous line is essential for the safe administration of PN with high dextrose. Monitoring blood glucose levels daily is important but not directly related to the need for a central venous line. Changing the PN infusion bag every 24 hours helps prevent bacterial contamination, but it is not the most critical action in this scenario. Administering the PN and fat emulsion together or separately is a matter of compatibility and administration guidelines, but it is not the key concern in this situation.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

• A. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber
• B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber
• C. Drainage of 50 ml per hour
• D. Crepitus around the insertion site

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, which requires immediate attention. The presence of crepitus suggests air leaking into the tissues, which could lead to respiratory compromise. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing the system is intact. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube.

5. A client has had their diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client's breakfast tray?

• A. smoothie
• B. sliced banana
• C. pancakes
• D. sunny side up (fried) eggs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: sunny side up (fried) eggs.' Fried eggs should be removed as they are not suitable for a mechanical soft diet due to their texture. The yolk of a fried egg is usually too hard and can be difficult for a client on a mechanical soft diet to chew and swallow. Poached or scrambled eggs are better alternatives for this diet as they are softer and easier to consume. Choices A, B, and C are all suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are softer in texture and easier to chew and swallow.

Similar Questions