Nursing Elites

1. When caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when asked to remove dentures before surgery, which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. "What worries you about being without your teeth?"
• B. "You need to follow the preoperative instructions and remove your dentures."
• C. "It's important to remove dentures to ensure proper fitting of the mask during anesthesia."
• D. "I will explain why dentures need to be removed before surgery."

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client about their concerns regarding being without their teeth. This approach helps address the client's anxiety and provides insight into the reason for their agitation. Choice B is authoritarian and does not address the client's emotional needs. Choice C focuses on the technical aspect of surgery and does not address the client's emotional state. Choice D implies a one-way communication without addressing the client's feelings or concerns.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?

• A. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• B. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
• D. Assess the client's urine output.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia, it indicates hyperglycemia. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial to assess and manage the client's condition effectively. Option A, encouraging the client to increase fluid intake, may exacerbate polyuria. Option C, administering insulin, should be done based on the healthcare provider's prescription after assessing the blood glucose level. Option D, assessing the client's urine output, is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario; monitoring blood glucose levels takes precedence.

3. A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

• A. Impaired peristalsis of the intestines
• B. Infection at the surgical site
• C. Fluid overload
• D. Inadequate pain management

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

4. The client is advised to take dexamethasone (Decadron) with food or milk. What is the physiological basis for this advice?

• A. Inhibits pepsin production
• B. Stimulates hydrochloric acid production
• C. Delays stomach emptying time
• D. Reduces hydrochloric acid production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Stimulates hydrochloric acid production. Dexamethasone can stimulate the production of hydrochloric acid in the stomach, which may lead to irritation of the stomach lining. Taking dexamethasone with food or milk helps to neutralize or buffer the acid, reducing the risk of stomach irritation. Choice A is incorrect because dexamethasone does not inhibit pepsin production. Choice C is incorrect as dexamethasone does not slow stomach emptying time. Choice D is incorrect as dexamethasone does not reduce hydrochloric acid production.

5. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.

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