HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. When caring for an older adult client who becomes agitated when asked to remove dentures before surgery, which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. "What worries you about being without your teeth?"
- B. "You need to follow the preoperative instructions and remove your dentures."
- C. "It's important to remove dentures to ensure proper fitting of the mask during anesthesia."
- D. "I will explain why dentures need to be removed before surgery."
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is to ask the client about their concerns regarding being without their teeth. This approach helps address the client's anxiety and provides insight into the reason for their agitation. Choice B is authoritarian and does not address the client's emotional needs. Choice C focuses on the technical aspect of surgery and does not address the client's emotional state. Choice D implies a one-way communication without addressing the client's feelings or concerns.
2. The nurse is teaching a client with newly diagnosed type 1 diabetes about insulin administration. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will rotate my injection sites to avoid lipodystrophy.
- B. I will check my blood sugar before meals and at bedtime.
- C. I will use the same needle for 3 days if I keep it clean.
- D. I will keep my insulin refrigerated until I need it.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because insulin needles should be disposed of after a single use to prevent infection. Reusing the same needle for three days can lead to infection and is not a safe practice. Choices A, B, and D demonstrate good understanding of insulin administration and diabetes management, so they do not indicate a need for further teaching.
3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse expect a prescription for fluid restriction?
- A. A client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
- B. A client who has heart failure
- C. A client who is receiving treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
- D. A client who has abdominal ascites
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluid restriction is commonly prescribed for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid overload and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Heart failure often leads to fluid retention, and restricting fluid intake can help manage this condition. Adrenal insufficiency, diabetic ketoacidosis, and abdominal ascites do not typically require fluid restriction as a primary intervention. Adrenal insufficiency may require hormone replacement therapy, diabetic ketoacidosis requires fluid and electrolyte replacement, and abdominal ascites may require diuretics or paracentesis to remove excess fluid.
4. When applying an ice bag to a client's ankle following a sports injury, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Fill the bag two-thirds full with ice.
- B. Apply the ice bag directly to the skin with a barrier.
- C. Keep the ice bag on for more than 30 minutes at a time.
- D. Use a frozen gel pack instead of ice.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Filling the ice bag two-thirds full is the correct action as it ensures the effectiveness of the ice application while allowing some space for the ice to move and conform to the injury. Choice B is incorrect because the ice bag should be applied with a barrier like a cloth to prevent direct contact with the skin, which can lead to ice burns. Choice C is wrong as ice should typically be applied for 20 minutes at a time to avoid tissue damage. Choice D is also incorrect as ice is preferred over frozen gel packs for immediate sports injury management.
5. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?
- A. Limiting fluids
- B. Client-controlled analgesia
- C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
- D. Performing passive range of motion exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.
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