HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam
1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
- B. Ask the client what the voices are saying.
- C. Distract the client with a new activity.
- D. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client what the voices are saying is the most appropriate intervention as it helps the nurse assess the content of the hallucinations and the potential risk they may pose. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue or provide valuable information for the nurse. Distracting the client with a new activity (Choice C) may temporarily divert attention but does not address the hallucinations. Telling the client that the voices are not real (Choice D) may invalidate the client's experience and can lead to distrust in the therapeutic relationship.
2. A female client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is describing her obsessions and compulsions and asks the nurse why these make her feel safer. What information should the nurse include in this client's teaching plan? (select one that does not apply.)
- A. Compulsions relieve anxiety
- B. Anxiety is the key reason for OCD
- C. Obsessions cause compulsions
- D. Obsessive thoughts are linked to levels of neurochemicals
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Obsessions do not cause compulsions; rather, obsessions are intrusive, unwanted thoughts, images, or urges that trigger intensely distressing feelings, while compulsions are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that a person feels driven to perform in response to an obsession or according to rules that must be applied rigidly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because compulsions are behaviors or mental acts aimed at reducing distress or preventing a dreaded event or situation. Choice B is incorrect because while anxiety is often a significant component of OCD, it is not the only reason for the disorder. Choice D is incorrect because obsessive thoughts are not solely linked to levels of neurochemicals but are more complex and multifactorial.
3. A male client with bipolar disorder has not slept or eaten in four days. He paces and becomes increasingly agitated and loud while the nurse talks to his spouse. What intervention is the best for the nurse to implement at this time?
- A. Move to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers.
- B. Walk with the client to the cafeteria and star as he eats lunch.
- C. Request a full lunch tray from the dietary department.
- D. Encourage the spouse to eat lunch with the client.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the best intervention for the nurse to implement is to move the client to a quiet area and provide peanut butter with crackers. The client's behavior indicates increasing agitation and loudness, which could be exacerbated by a noisy environment. Providing a quiet space can help reduce stimuli and promote a sense of calm. Additionally, offering a small, manageable snack like peanut butter with crackers can address the client's immediate needs for sustenance without overwhelming him. Choices B, C, and D do not address the client's current agitation and lack of sleep or food effectively, making them less appropriate interventions in this scenario.
4. A newly admitted client describes her mission in life as one of saving her son by eliminating the 'provocative sluts' of the world. There are several attractive young women on the unit. What should the LPN/LVN do first?
- A. Ask the client for her definition of 'provocative sluts'
- B. Ask the young female clients on the unit to dress less provocatively
- C. Ask the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session
- D. Ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the LPN/LVN to take first is to ask the client to inform the staff if she has negative thoughts about other clients. This approach is crucial as it helps in monitoring the client's thoughts and behaviors, potentially preventing any harmful actions towards others on the unit. Asking for the client's definition of 'provocative sluts' (Choice A) may not address the immediate concern of monitoring the client's harmful thoughts. Asking the young female clients to dress less provocatively (Choice B) is inappropriate and victim-blaming. Asking the client to discuss her concerns in the next group session (Choice C) may not be effective in addressing the potential harm the client's thoughts could pose to others on the unit.
5. A client with bipolar disorder is being treated with lithium. The nurse should monitor the client for which early sign of lithium toxicity?
- A. Diarrhea
- B. Tremors
- C. Polyuria
- D. Blurred vision
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Diarrhea is an early sign of lithium toxicity. When a client being treated with lithium presents with diarrhea, it can indicate the beginning of lithium toxicity. Monitoring for this symptom is crucial as it can progress to more severe toxicity if not addressed promptly. Tremors (choice B) are more commonly associated with the therapeutic effects of lithium rather than toxicity. Polyuria (choice C) is a common side effect of lithium, but it is not typically an early sign of toxicity. Blurred vision (choice D) is not a common early sign of lithium toxicity. Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
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