a nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia who is experiencing auditory hallucinations what is the most appropriate nursing intervention
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client what the voices are saying is the most appropriate intervention as it helps the nurse assess the content of the hallucinations and the potential risk they may pose. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue or provide valuable information for the nurse. Distracting the client with a new activity (Choice C) may temporarily divert attention but does not address the hallucinations. Telling the client that the voices are not real (Choice D) may invalidate the client's experience and can lead to distrust in the therapeutic relationship.

2. A client is responding to auditory hallucinations and shakes a fist at a nurse and says, 'Back off, witch!' The nurse follows the client into the day room. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In situations where a client is responding to auditory hallucinations and displaying aggressive behavior, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure physical space between themselves and the client. This action can help de-escalate the situation and prevent any potential harm to both the nurse and the client. Sitting down near the client (Choice A) may escalate the situation by invading the client's personal space. Positioning oneself within an arm's length of the client (Choice B) may increase the risk of physical confrontation. Moving closer to the room's door (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can block the client's exit route and escalate the situation further. Therefore, ensuring physical space between the nurse and the client (Choice C) is the most appropriate action to promote safety and prevent escalation.

3. The nurse is planning the care for a 32-year-old male client with acute depression. Which nursing intervention would be best in helping this client deal with his depression?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assisting the client in exploring feelings of shame, anger, and guilt (B) is the most appropriate intervention for acute depression as it helps address core emotions that may be contributing to the condition. Focusing on these emotions can aid the client in processing and coping with their feelings. Ensuring that the client's day is filled with group activities (A) might overwhelm the client, as they may not be ready for social interactions during this sensitive time. Allowing the client to initiate and determine activities of daily living (C) is more suitable for chronic cases where the client needs to regain autonomy. Encouraging the client to explore the rationale for his depression (D) is less effective in acute cases, as the focus should be on immediate emotional support and understanding rather than cognitive analysis.

4. An LPN/LVN is conducting an initial assessment on a client in crisis. When assessing the client's perception of the precipitating event that led to the crisis, the appropriate question to ask is:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing a client's perception of the precipitating event that led to a crisis is 'What leads you to seek help now?' This question directly addresses the client's current situation and triggers that brought them to seek assistance. Choices A and B are more focused on the client's social support system rather than the root cause of the crisis. Choice D addresses coping mechanisms rather than the actual trigger for seeking help.

5. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

Similar Questions

The nurse observes a female client with schizophrenia watching the news on TV. She begins to laugh softly and says, 'Yes, my love, I'll do it.' When the nurse questions the client about her comment, she states, 'The news commentator is my lover, and he speaks to me each evening. Only I can understand what he says.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?
A client who has been diagnosed with borderline personality disorder is exhibiting manipulative behavior. What is the most important intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
The nurse observes a client who is admitted to the mental health unit and identifies that the client is talking continuously, using words that rhyme but that have no context or relationship with one topic to the next in the conversation. This client's behavior and thought processes are consistent with which syndrome?
The LPN/LVN is assessing a client's intelligence. Which factor should the nurse remember during this part of the mental status exam?
What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?

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