Nursing Elites

1. A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?

• A. Images indicate the presence of tumors and scars.
• B. The scan clearly outlines structures of the brain.
• C. Results show activity in various portions of the brain.
• D. PET shows biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.

2. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with clozapine (Clozaril). What is the most important laboratory test for the LPN/LVN to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count.
• B. Liver function tests.
• C. Blood glucose levels.
• D. Platelet count.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important laboratory test for an LPN/LVN to monitor for a client with schizophrenia being treated with clozapine is the white blood cell count. Clozapine treatment is associated with a risk of agranulocytosis, a severe drop in white blood cells, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring the white blood cell count regularly helps to detect this adverse effect early. Liver function tests (Choice B) are important to monitor with some antipsychotic medications but are not the most crucial for clozapine. Blood glucose levels (Choice C) are more relevant for monitoring in clients on medications like atypical antipsychotics that can cause metabolic side effects. Platelet count (Choice D) is not typically affected by clozapine therapy and is not the most important test to monitor in this case.

3. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?

• A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
• B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
• C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
• D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy indicate the need for gastric lavage. Gastric lavage is a procedure used to remove toxic substances from the stomach in cases where the patient is unresponsive or unable to cooperate. Choice A is incorrect as the time of ingestion alone does not indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice B, although indicating a significant overdose, does not directly necessitate gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as it provides information about the possible psychological motivation for repeated suicide attempts, but it is not directly related to the immediate need for gastric lavage in this scenario.

4. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed alprazolam (Xanax). What is the most important teaching point for the nurse to include?

• A. Take this medication at the first sign of anxiety.
• B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
• C. You may experience weight gain while taking this medication.
• D. This medication may cause vivid dreams.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important teaching point for a client prescribed alprazolam is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abruptly stopping alprazolam, a benzodiazepine, can lead to withdrawal symptoms. It is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision to prevent adverse effects. Choice A is incorrect because taking the medication at the first sign of anxiety is not the key teaching point. Choice C is incorrect because weight gain is not a common side effect of alprazolam. Choice D is incorrect because vivid dreams are not a significant concern compared to the risks of abrupt discontinuation of the medication.

5. Two days after his last drink, a male alcoholic client becomes agitated and yells at his wife and children, 'Stay away from me!' His vital signs are elevated. What nursing diagnosis has the highest priority?

• A. High risk for social isolation.
• B. Altered parenting.
• C. Ineffective individual coping.
• D. High risk for injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'High risk for injury.' The client's agitation, elevated vital signs, and aggressive behavior pose a threat to himself and his family. Addressing the risk for injury is the priority to ensure the safety of all individuals involved. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this scenario. 'High risk for social isolation' does not address the immediate physical safety concern. 'Altered parenting' and 'Ineffective individual coping' are important but not as urgent as the risk for injury in this situation.

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