HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. What assessment is the priority focus for a client with major depression?
- A. Mood and affect.
- B. Suicidal ideation.
- C. Nutritional status.
- D. Fluid and electrolyte balance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Suicidal ideation. When dealing with a client diagnosed with major depression, assessing for suicidal ideation is of utmost importance. Individuals with major depression have an increased risk of suicide; hence, evaluating their risk for self-harm is crucial. Mood and affect, while important, come secondary to ensuring the safety of the client. Nutritional status and fluid and electrolyte balance are essential components of care but are not the priority when dealing with a client with major depression.
2. The caregiver is teaching parents about the diet for a 4-month-old infant with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration. In addition to oral rehydration fluids, the diet should include
- A. Formula or breast milk
- B. Broth and tea
- C. Rice cereal and apple juice
- D. Gelatin and ginger ale
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Formula or breast milk. In infants with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration, it is essential to continue feeding them with formula or breast milk along with oral rehydration fluids to provide adequate nutrition and maintain hydration. Option B, broth and tea, may not provide the necessary nutrients and electrolytes needed for the infant's recovery. Option C, rice cereal and apple juice, can be harsh on the digestive system and may exacerbate diarrhea. Option D, gelatin and ginger ale, do not provide the necessary nutrients and can worsen the condition due to the high sugar content in ginger ale.
3. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?
- A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
- B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
- C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
- D. The child may not have had it for a long time.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with depression who has been prescribed sertraline (Zoloft). The client reports experiencing nausea. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. "You should stop taking the medication immediately."
- B. "Nausea is a common side effect and usually decreases over time."
- C. "Try taking the medication with food to reduce nausea."
- D. "I will inform the healthcare provider to change your medication."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Nausea is a common side effect of sertraline, and clients should be reassured that it usually decreases as their body adjusts to the medication." Choice A is incorrect because abruptly stopping the medication without consulting a healthcare provider can be harmful. Choice C is a good suggestion to reduce nausea by taking the medication with food but does not address the temporary nature of the side effect. Choice D is unnecessary at this point since nausea is a common side effect that may improve with time.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin, it is crucial to instruct them to report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Saxagliptin can lead to pancreatitis as a side effect, making it essential for clients to be vigilant about recognizing and reporting any related symptoms promptly for timely intervention and management. Choice B is incorrect because saxagliptin can be taken with or without meals. Choice C is not specifically associated with saxagliptin use. Choice D is incorrect as heart failure is not a common side effect of saxagliptin.