Nursing Elites

1. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

• A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
• B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
• C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
• D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

2. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving 24-hour total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central line at 54 ml/hr. When initially assessing the client, the nurse notes that the TPN solution has run out and the next TPN solution is not available. What immediate action should the nurse take?

• A. Infuse normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate.
• B. Discontinue the IV and flush the port with heparin.
• C. Infuse 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr.
• D. Obtain a stat blood glucose level and notify the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Infusing 10% dextrose and water at 54 ml/hr is the correct action to prevent hypoglycemia until the next TPN solution becomes available. This solution will help maintain the client's glucose levels. Infusing normal saline at a keep-vein-open rate (Choice A) is not appropriate for maintaining glucose levels and would not address the nutritional needs provided by TPN. Discontinuing the IV and flushing the port with heparin (Choice B) is unnecessary and not indicated in this situation as the client still needs fluid and nutrition. Obtaining a stat blood glucose level and notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done later but is not the immediate action required when the TPN solution has run out.

3. The healthcare provider prescribes the diuretic metolazone (Zaroxolyn) 7.5 mg PO. Zaroxolyn is available in 5 mg tablets. How much should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?

• A. 1/2 tablet.
• B. 1 tablet.
• C. 1 1/2 tablets.
• D. 2 tablets.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To administer 7.5 mg of metolazone (Zaroxolyn), the LPN/LVN should plan to give 1 1/2 tablets since each tablet contains 5 mg. Choice A (1/2 tablet) would not provide the full prescribed dose. Choice B (1 tablet) would only deliver 5 mg, which is less than the prescribed dose. Choice D (2 tablets) would exceed the prescribed dose, resulting in 10 mg instead of the required 7.5 mg. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer 1 1/2 tablets to achieve the prescribed 7.5 mg.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling anxious, shaky, and weak. These findings are manifestations of which of the following complications?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Ketoacidosis
• D. Dawn phenomenon

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, Hypoglycemia. In diabetes mellitus, hypoglycemia can lead to symptoms such as anxiety, shakiness, and weakness due to low blood sugar levels. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is high blood sugar levels and typically presents with symptoms like increased thirst and frequent urination. Ketoacidosis (choice C) is a serious complication of diabetes characterized by high levels of ketones in the blood, leading to symptoms such as fruity breath and rapid breathing. The Dawn phenomenon (choice D) refers to an abnormal early-morning increase in blood sugar levels without an associated hypoglycemia during the night.

5. A client who is nonambulatory notifies the nurse that his trash can is on fire. After the nurse confirms the fire, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Activate the emergency fire alarm
• B. Extinguish the fire
• C. Evacuate the client
• D. Confine the fire

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next, after confirming the fire, is to evacuate the client. In a fire situation, following the RACE mnemonic, the priority is to rescue or evacuate clients to ensure their safety. Activating the emergency fire alarm (Choice A) is important to alert others and the fire department, but evacuating the client takes precedence. Extinguishing the fire (Choice B) may put the nurse and client at risk and is best left to trained personnel. Confining the fire (Choice D) is not the nurse's responsibility; the focus should be on ensuring the client's safety by evacuating them.

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