Nursing Elites

1. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

2. Which statement by the mother indicates that the mother understands safety precautions with her four-month-old infant and her 4-year-old child?

• A. I secure the infant car seat in the back seat facing backwards.
• B. I place my infant in the middle of the living room floor on a blanket to play with my 4-year-old while I make supper in the kitchen.
• C. My sleeping baby looks adorable in the crib with the little buttocks up in the air while the four-year-old naps on the sofa.
• D. I have the 4-year-old hold and help feed the four-month-old a bottle in the kitchen while I make supper.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Choice D is the correct answer because having the 4-year-old help feed the four-month-old a bottle in the kitchen while the mother makes supper shows supervision of the infant by the older child in a safe environment. This choice indicates that the mother understands safety precautions by involving the older child in a caregiving task under her supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they involve unsafe practices such as placing the infant on the floor unsupervised, positioning the infant car seat in the front seat, and not providing direct supervision of the children during naptimes.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is being assessed. Which laboratory value would be most concerning?

• A. Serum creatinine of 3.0 mg/dL
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 45 mg/dL
• C. Serum potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease, an elevated serum potassium level (hyperkalemia) is the most concerning finding. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening cardiac dysrhythmias due to its effect on the electrical conduction system of the heart. Monitoring and managing serum potassium levels are crucial in patients with chronic kidney disease to prevent serious complications. While elevated serum creatinine (Choice A) and Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) levels (Choice B) indicate impaired kidney function, hyperkalemia poses an immediate risk of cardiac complications. Hemoglobin levels (Choice D) are typically lower in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production, but they do not present an immediate life-threatening risk like hyperkalemia.

4. A healthcare professional is measuring vital signs for a client and notices an irregularity in the pulse. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Count the apical pulse rate for 1 full minute, and describe the rhythm in the chart.
• B. Recheck the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes.
• C. Measure the client’s blood pressure.
• D. Record the irregularity and continue with other vital signs.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an irregular pulse is detected, it is essential to count the apical pulse rate for a full minute to accurately determine the rhythm. This ensures a comprehensive assessment and helps in identifying any potential issues or abnormalities. Rechecking the pulse at the same site after 5 minutes (Choice B) may not provide an immediate understanding of the irregularity. Measuring the client's blood pressure (Choice C) is important but not directly related to addressing the irregular pulse. Recording the irregularity and continuing with other vital signs (Choice D) may overlook a potentially serious cardiac issue that requires immediate attention.

5. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

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