Nursing Elites

1. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?

• A. Fresh fruits
• B. Grilled chicken
• C. Whole grain bread
• D. Canned soup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soup is often high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet prescribed for hypertension. Fresh fruits (A) are generally low in sodium and are a healthy choice. Grilled chicken (B) is a lean protein option that is suitable for a low-sodium diet. Whole grain bread (C) is also a good choice as it is not typically high in sodium. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should recommend avoiding canned soup to adhere to the low-sodium dietary restrictions.

3. A 3-year-old child has had multiple tooth extractions while under general anesthesia. The client returns from the post-anesthesia care unit crying but awake. Which approach is likely to be successful?

• A. Examine the mouth first
• B. Reassure the child
• C. Examine the mouth last
• D. Offer a pacifier

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, it is crucial to prioritize the comfort of the child. By examining the mouth last, discomfort is minimized, and the child is given the opportunity to settle down. Choosing to examine the mouth first may escalate the distress of the child further. While reassuring the child is important, in this case, addressing the physical discomfort before providing emotional reassurance is more effective. Offering a pacifier may provide some comfort, but addressing the immediate physical discomfort by examining the mouth last is the most appropriate action to help the child settle down after the procedure.

4. After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

• A. Administer the enema solution.
• B. Remove the enema tube from the client's rectum.
• C. Wrap the end of the enema tube with a disposable tissue.
• D. Insert the enema tube into the client's rectum.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

5. A charge nurse is teaching a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which of the following statements should the charge nurse identify as an indication that the newly licensed nurse understands the teaching?

• A. I should obtain a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial.
• B. MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin, so another antimicrobial will be prescribed.
• C. I will protect others from exposure when I transport the client outside the room.
• D. To decrease resistance, antimicrobial therapy is discontinued when the client is no longer febrile.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Protecting others from exposure when transporting a client with MRSA is crucial in preventing the spread of infection. This statement demonstrates understanding of infection control measures. Stating that MRSA is usually resistant to vancomycin (choice B) is incorrect; vancomycin is often effective against MRSA. Obtaining a specimen for culture and sensitivity after the first dose of an antimicrobial (choice A) is unnecessary and not indicated. Discontinuing antimicrobial therapy when the client is no longer febrile (choice D) is incorrect because antimicrobial therapy should be completed as prescribed to prevent the development of resistant strains.

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