Nursing Elites

1. During a mass casualty event, a nurse is caring for multiple clients. Which of the following clients is the nurse’s priority?

• A. A client who received crush injuries to the chest and abdomen and is expected to die.
• B. A client who has a 4-inch laceration to the head.
• C. A client who has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to his face, neck, and chest.
• D. A client who has a fractured fibula and tibia.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During a mass casualty event, the priority client for the nurse is the one with partial-thickness and full-thickness burns to the face, neck, and chest. Clients with severe burns in critical areas require immediate attention due to the potential for life-threatening complications such as airway compromise, fluid loss, and infection. Crush injuries and fractures, although serious, are generally less urgent in comparison and can be managed after addressing the burns. Therefore, the client with burns to the face, neck, and chest should be the nurse's priority over the other clients described.

2. A client with prostate cancer declines to discuss concerns after the provider discusses treatment options. What statement should the nurse make?

• A. I am available to talk if you should change your mind.
• B. It’s important to discuss your concerns with the provider.
• C. You need to make a decision about your treatment options.
• D. Your concerns will be addressed at a later time.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Offering to talk later if the client changes their mind respects their current choice and keeps the dialogue open. Choice B is not the best response as it may pressure the client to share concerns. Choice C is incorrect as it imposes a decision on the client. Choice D does not acknowledge the client's feelings in the moment and postpones addressing concerns.

3. A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following measures should the professional take to prevent the spread of infection?

• A. Place a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow
• B. Use a disposable gown for contact precautions
• C. Place a client with MRSA in a private room
• D. Use a mask for clients with influenza

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tuberculosis is an airborne infection, and placing a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing the pathogens. This measure is crucial as it prevents the dissemination of TB droplet nuclei to other areas. Choice B, using a disposable gown for contact precautions, is important for preventing the transmission of infections spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, placing a client with MRSA in a private room, is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA through contact with others. Choice D, using a mask for clients with influenza, helps prevent the spread of influenza through respiratory droplets. However, negative pressure airflow is specifically required for airborne infections like TB, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

4. Upon admission to the hospital, a client presents with decreased circulation in the left leg. What is the most important initial nursing action during the assessment?

• A. Assess the client's mobility
• B. Evaluate the pedal pulses
• C. Monitor skin temperature
• D. Check for swelling

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is admitted with decreased circulation in the left leg, the most critical initial nursing action is to evaluate the pedal pulses. Pedal pulses provide essential information about the circulation status in the affected leg. Assessing the client's mobility (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as evaluating pedal pulses in this scenario. Monitoring skin temperature (Choice C) and checking for swelling (Choice D) are also relevant, but they are secondary to evaluating pedal pulses since the latter directly assesses the circulation in the affected limb.

5. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

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