Nursing Elites

1. A client requires bed rest and has a prescription for anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Apply the stockings with the creases on the front of the leg.
• B. Apply the stockings while the client's legs are in a dependent position.
• C. Remove the stockings at least once per shift.
• D. Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the anti-embolic stockings at least once per shift. This is essential to assess the client's circulation and skin integrity. Option A is incorrect because the stockings should be applied without creases to ensure proper compression. Option B is incorrect as the stockings should be applied when the client's legs are elevated, not in a dependent position. Option D is incorrect as removing the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair is not necessary and does not provide the appropriate assessment opportunity.

2. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

• A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
• B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
• C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
• D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

3. The LPN is preparing discharge instructions for a client who has begun to demonstrate signs of early Alzheimer's disease. The client lives alone. The client's adult children live nearby. According to the prescribed medication regimen, the client is to take medications six times throughout the day. What is the priority nursing intervention to assist the client with taking the medication?

• A. Contact the client's children and ask them to hire a private duty aide who will provide round-the-clock care.
• B. Develop a chart for the client, listing the times the medication should be taken.
• C. Contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen.
• D. Instruct the client and client's children to put medications in a weekly pill organizer.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention in this scenario is to contact the primary health care provider and discuss the possibility of simplifying the medication regimen. Simplifying the medication regimen is crucial for a client with early Alzheimer's disease to ensure they can manage their medications independently and safely. This intervention focuses on optimizing the client's ability to adhere to the prescribed medication schedule. Choices A and D involve external assistance and may not address the core issue of simplifying the regimen. Choice B, while helpful, does not directly address the need to simplify the regimen to enhance the client's medication management.

4. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a group of clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse expect a prescription for fluid restriction?

• A. A client who has a new diagnosis of adrenal insufficiency
• B. A client who has heart failure
• C. A client who is receiving treatment for diabetic ketoacidosis
• D. A client who has abdominal ascites

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Fluid restriction is commonly prescribed for clients with heart failure to prevent fluid overload and exacerbation of heart failure symptoms. Heart failure often leads to fluid retention, and restricting fluid intake can help manage this condition. Adrenal insufficiency, diabetic ketoacidosis, and abdominal ascites do not typically require fluid restriction as a primary intervention. Adrenal insufficiency may require hormone replacement therapy, diabetic ketoacidosis requires fluid and electrolyte replacement, and abdominal ascites may require diuretics or paracentesis to remove excess fluid.

5. A healthcare professional is screening several clients at a neighborhood health fair. Which of the following assessment findings is the priority for referral for further care?

• A. HR 105/min
• B. BMI 25 kg/m²
• C. BP 148/92
• D. Glucose 45 mg/dL

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Glucose 45 mg/dL.' Glucose level of 45 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which is a critical condition requiring immediate attention to prevent complications like seizures, loss of consciousness, and even coma. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious adverse outcomes if not promptly addressed. Choices A, B, and C do not represent immediate life-threatening conditions and can be managed as part of routine care, unlike hypoglycemia which demands urgent intervention.

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