HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Test Bank
1. A client requires bed rest and has a prescription for anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Apply the stockings with the creases on the front of the leg.
- B. Apply the stockings while the client's legs are in a dependent position.
- C. Remove the stockings at least once per shift.
- D. Remove the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the anti-embolic stockings at least once per shift. This is essential to assess the client's circulation and skin integrity. Option A is incorrect because the stockings should be applied without creases to ensure proper compression. Option B is incorrect as the stockings should be applied when the client's legs are elevated, not in a dependent position. Option D is incorrect as removing the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair is not necessary and does not provide the appropriate assessment opportunity.
2. A client with major depressive disorder is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). What should the nurse include in the client's discharge teaching?
- A. It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective.
- B. You should take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
- D. You can stop taking the medication once you feel better.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "It may take 4-6 weeks for the medication to be effective." SSRIs like fluoxetine typically take 4-6 weeks to reach their full effect, so clients should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in symptoms. Choice B is incorrect because fluoxetine is usually taken in the morning to prevent sleep disturbances. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid consuming dairy products while taking fluoxetine. Choice D is incorrect because clients should never stop taking antidepressants abruptly, as it can lead to withdrawal symptoms and worsening of the condition.
3. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?
- A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
- B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
- C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
- D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.
4. During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?
- A. Record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse
- B. Ask the family members to visit more often to stimulate the patient
- C. Motivate the client by offering favorite foods as a prize
- D. Withhold any medications that may cause side effects
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.
5. A 15-month-old child with the diagnosis of hydrocephalus is scheduled for a computed tomography (CT) scan. What should the nurse include when preparing the toddler for the CT scan?
- A. Shaving the head
- B. Starting the prescribed IV infusion
- C. Administering the prescribed sedative
- D. Giving the child a simple explanation of the procedure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Preparing a toddler for a CT scan involves providing a simple explanation of the procedure to reduce anxiety and help the child understand what will happen. This approach helps establish trust and cooperation, making the experience less frightening for the child. Shaving the head, starting an IV infusion, or administering a sedative are not typically part of the preparation for a CT scan in a toddler and may not be necessary or appropriate in this scenario.