a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving prenatal care and is at her 24 week appointment which of the following laboratory tests should the nur
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HESI Maternal Newborn

1. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

2. In the structure of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), which of the following bases combines with thymine?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Adenine. In the structure of DNA, adenine pairs with thymine through hydrogen bonding, forming one of the complementary base pairs that make up the double helix structure of DNA. Cytosine pairs with guanine, not thymine. Rhodamine and serine are not DNA bases and do not participate in DNA base pairing. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect.

3. A newborn is 1 hour old with a respiratory rate of 50/min, a heart rate of 130/min, and an axillary temperature of 36.1°C (97°F). Which of the following actions should be taken?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Applying a cap to the newborn's head is the correct action in this scenario. Newborns are at risk of heat loss due to their high surface area to volume ratio, and maintaining their body temperature is crucial to prevent hypothermia. Giving a warm bath can further increase heat loss and is not recommended. Repositioning the newborn may not address the primary concern of temperature regulation. While monitoring oxygen saturation is important, addressing thermal regulation takes precedence in this situation.

4. What information should the nurse include when teaching a client at 41 weeks of gestation about a non-stress test?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'This test will determine the adequacy of placental perfusion.' The non-stress test is used to assess fetal well-being by monitoring the fetal heart rate in response to its own movements. It helps determine if the fetus is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients through placental perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because confirming fetal lung maturity is typically determined through tests like amniocentesis, not the non-stress test. Choice C is incorrect because detecting fetal infection is not the primary purpose of a non-stress test. Choice D is incorrect because predicting maternal readiness for labor is not the purpose of the non-stress test; it focuses on fetal well-being.

5. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

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