Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?

• A. Group B strep culture
• B. 1-hour glucose tolerance test
• C. Rubella titer
• D. Blood type and Rh

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.

2. Which of the following statements is true of Down’s syndrome?

• A. Down’s syndrome is usually caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21 in an individual.
• B. The symptoms of Down’s syndrome are similar to those of sickle-cell anemia.
• C. Down’s syndrome is caused by a sexually transmitted infection (STI) during conception.
• D. The probability of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with the age of the parents.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The likelihood of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases as the age of the parents increases, particularly the mother's age. Choice A is incorrect because Down’s syndrome is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21, not a defect in the sex chromosomes. Choice B is incorrect as the symptoms of Down’s syndrome and sickle-cell anemia are different. Choice C is also incorrect as Down’s syndrome is not caused by a sexually transmitted infection during conception.

3. Which of the following statements is true about Tay-Sachs disease?

• A. It is most commonly found among children in Jewish families of Eastern European background.
• B. Children who have this disease suffer from excessive production of mucus in the lungs and pancreas.
• C. It is most commonly found among children in Asian American families.
• D. Children who have this disease suffer from muscular dystrophy characterized by a weakening of the muscles.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Tay-Sachs disease is most commonly found among Jewish families of Eastern European descent. It is a fatal genetic disorder that affects the nervous system. Choice B is incorrect because Tay-Sachs disease does not involve excessive mucus production in the lungs and pancreas. Choice C is incorrect as it states that Tay-Sachs disease is most commonly found among Asian American families, which is inaccurate. Choice D is also incorrect because Tay-Sachs disease does not cause muscular dystrophy characterized by weakening of the muscles.

4. A client who is 5 days postpartum is being taught about signs of effective breastfeeding. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Feeling a tugging sensation when the baby is sucking
• B. Expecting the baby to have two to three wet diapers in a 24-hour period
• C. The baby’s urine should appear dark and concentrated
• D. The breast should stay firm after the baby breastfeeds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Feeling a tugging sensation while the baby is sucking indicates an effective latch and milk transfer during breastfeeding. This sensation means that the baby is effectively drawing milk from the breast. Choice B is incorrect because infants should ideally have six to eight wet diapers in a 24-hour period to show adequate hydration. Choice C is incorrect as a dark and concentrated urine may indicate dehydration, which is not a sign of effective breastfeeding. Choice D is incorrect as the breast should soften after the baby breastfeeds, indicating that the baby has effectively emptied the breast of milk.

5. A client has active genital herpes simplex virus type 2. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Penicillin
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Gentamicin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Acyclovir is the antiviral medication specifically used to treat herpes simplex virus infections, including genital herpes caused by herpes simplex virus type 2. Metronidazole (Choice A) is an antibiotic used for different types of infections, but not for viral infections like herpes. Penicillin (Choice B) is an antibiotic effective against bacterial infections, not viruses like herpes. Gentamicin (Choice D) is an antibiotic mainly used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections like herpes.

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