Nursing Elites

1. A client is on a methadone maintenance program for opioid addiction. What is the most important assessment to perform?

• A. Monitor for signs of withdrawal.
• B. Assess for signs of methadone toxicity.
• C. Evaluate the client's respiratory status.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment to perform for a client on a methadone maintenance program is to evaluate the client's respiratory status. Methadone can cause respiratory depression as a side effect, making it crucial to monitor the client's breathing to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for signs of withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the most critical in this scenario. Assessing for signs of methadone toxicity (choice B) is relevant, but respiratory status takes precedence due to the risk of respiratory depression. Checking the client's blood pressure regularly (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not as crucial as monitoring respiratory status in this case.

2. The nurse is conducting discharge teaching for a client with schizophrenia who plans to live in a group home. Which statement is most indicative of the need for careful follow-up after discharge?

• A. Crickets are a good source of protein.
• B. I have not heard any voices for a week.
• C. Only my belief in God can help me.
• D. Sometimes I have a hard time sitting still.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The statement 'Only my belief in God can help me' suggests a reliance on spiritual intervention over medical treatment, raising concerns about potential non-compliance. This indicates the need for close follow-up to ensure the client's well-being and adherence to the prescribed treatment plan. Choices A, B, and D do not directly address potential issues related to treatment compliance or the need for follow-up care after discharge.

3. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

4. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

5. A female client on a psychiatric unit is sweating profusely while she vigorously does push-ups and then runs the length of the corridor several times before crashing into furniture in the sitting room. Picking herself up, she begins to toss chairs aside, looking for a red one to sit in. When another client objects to the disturbance, the client shouts, 'I am the boss here. I do what I want.' Which nursing problem best supports these observations?

• A. Deficient diversional activity related to excess energy level.
• B. Risk for other-directed violence related to disruptive behavior.
• C. Risk for activity intolerance related to hyperactivity.
• D. Disturbed personal identity related to grandiosity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's disruptive and potentially harmful behavior, including tossing chairs and claiming authority, indicates a risk for other-directed violence. This behavior poses a threat to the safety of the client and others. While the client may have excess energy, the primary concern is the potential for violence, not just a lack of diversional activities (Choice A). The client's behavior is not solely due to hyperactivity leading to activity intolerance (Choice C) or grandiosity affecting personal identity (Choice D), making these options less appropriate in this context.

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