Nursing Elites

1. A client is on a methadone maintenance program for opioid addiction. What is the most important assessment to perform?

• A. Monitor for signs of withdrawal.
• B. Assess for signs of methadone toxicity.
• C. Evaluate the client's respiratory status.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most important assessment to perform for a client on a methadone maintenance program is to evaluate the client's respiratory status. Methadone can cause respiratory depression as a side effect, making it crucial to monitor the client's breathing to prevent potential complications. Monitoring for signs of withdrawal (choice A) is important but not the most critical in this scenario. Assessing for signs of methadone toxicity (choice B) is relevant, but respiratory status takes precedence due to the risk of respiratory depression. Checking the client's blood pressure regularly (choice D) is important for overall assessment but is not as crucial as monitoring respiratory status in this case.

2. The RN is preparing to administer a prescribed dose of haloperidol (Haldol) to a client with schizophrenia. The client begins to exhibit muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status. What action should the RN take first?

• A. Administer the haloperidol as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's vital signs closely.
• C. Hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider.
• D. Give the client an antipyretic for the fever.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity, fever, and altered mental status are symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medications. The RN should hold the medication and notify the healthcare provider immediately. Option A is incorrect because administering more of the medication can worsen the symptoms. Option B is not the first priority when the client is experiencing symptoms of NMS. Option D is incorrect as addressing the fever alone does not address the underlying issue of NMS caused by haloperidol.

3. The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?

• A. It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
• B. It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
• C. Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
• D. I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

4. A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. When her tray is brought to her, she refuses to eat and tells the nurse, 'I know you are trying to poison me with that food.' Which response would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?

• A. 'I'll leave your tray here. I am available if you need anything else.'
• B. 'You're not being poisoned. Why do you think someone is trying to poison you?'
• C. 'No one on this unit has ever died from poisoning. You're safe here.'
• D. 'I will talk to your healthcare provider about the possibility of changing your diet.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice (A) offers support without confrontation, allowing the client to feel safe and respected. Choices (B) and (C) directly challenge the client's delusion, which can increase anxiety and distrust. Choice (D) focuses on a non-essential issue and does not address the client's immediate emotional needs.

5. Which action should the nurse implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Apply vest or extremity restraints.
• B. Give an alpha-adrenergic blocker.
• C. Provide a diet high in protein and calories.
• D. Prepare the environment to prevent self-injury.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first for a client experiencing alcohol withdrawal is to prepare the environment to prevent self-injury. Clients undergoing alcohol withdrawal are at risk of seizures and other symptoms that may lead to self-harm. By ensuring a safe environment, the nurse can mitigate the risk of injury. Applying restraints (Choice A) should only be considered if less restrictive measures fail, as restraints can agitate the client further. Giving an alpha-adrenergic blocker (Choice B) may be part of the treatment plan for alcohol withdrawal but is not the first action to take. Providing a diet high in protein and calories (Choice C) is important for overall health but is not the priority when addressing immediate safety concerns.

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