HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. An older female adult who lives in a nursing home is loudly demanding that the nurse call her son who has been deceased for five years. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Assist the client in making the phone call.
- B. Remind the client about her son's passing.
- C. Escort the client to a private area.
- D. Direct the client to a new activity.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate intervention is to direct the client to a new activity. This approach can help redirect the client's attention, distract her from the distressing request, and engage her in a more positive interaction. Choice A could exacerbate the client's distress by attempting to make the impossible call, and reminding the client about her son's passing (Choice B) may increase her emotional distress. Escorting the client to a private area (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue and may not effectively manage the situation.
2. A female client with anorexia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. What is the priority assessment for the nurse to perform?
- A. Assess the client's body image perception.
- B. Monitor the client's electrolyte levels.
- C. Evaluate the client's exercise habits.
- D. Assess the client's relationship with her family.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's electrolyte levels. In clients with anorexia nervosa, electrolyte imbalances can lead to serious, potentially life-threatening complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Assessing body image perception (choice A) is important but not the priority when compared to monitoring electrolyte levels. Evaluating exercise habits (choice C) and assessing the client's relationship with her family (choice D) are also important aspects of care but do not take precedence over monitoring electrolyte levels in a client with anorexia nervosa.
3. A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
- B. Tell the client that the voices will go away with medication.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of self-harm.
- D. Refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.
4. An elderly female client with advanced dementia is admitted to the hospital with a fractured hip. The client repeatedly tells the staff, 'Take me home. I want my Mommy.' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide?
- A. Orient the client to the time, place, and person.
- B. Tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her.
- C. Remind the client that her mother is no longer living.
- D. Explain the seriousness of her injury and need for hospitalization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to tell the client that the nurse is there and will help her. Providing reassurance and presence is more therapeutic in dealing with a client who has advanced dementia and is expressing a desire to go home and be with her mother. Option A might not be effective as continuously orienting the client may not alleviate her distress. Option C, reminding the client that her mother is no longer living, can be distressing and may not be appropriate in this situation. Option D, explaining the seriousness of the injury and need for hospitalization, is not the best response as it does not address the client's emotional needs at that moment.
5. A 22-year-old male client is admitted to the emergency center following a suicide attempt. His records reveal that this is his third suicide attempt in the past two years. He is conscious, but does not respond to verbal commands for treatment. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to prepare the client for gastric lavage?
- A. He ingested the drug 3 hours prior to admission to the emergency center.
- B. The family reports that he took an entire bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol).
- C. He is unresponsive to instructions and is unable to cooperate with emetic therapy.
- D. Those with repeated suicide attempts desire punishment to relieve their guilt.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client's unresponsiveness to instructions and inability to cooperate with emetic therapy would make it challenging to implement such therapy effectively. In such cases, gastric lavage may be necessary to remove the ingested substance. Choices A and B are important considerations in treatment planning but do not directly indicate the need for gastric lavage. Choice D is incorrect as medical treatments should never be used as punitive measures but rather for therapeutic purposes.
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