Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes her hands throughout the day. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to talk about the underlying fears.
• C. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.
• D. Schedule a time for the client to perform the ritual.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the underlying fears is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly washes her hands. By discussing the fears, the client can gain insight into the behavior and work towards reducing the compulsion. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to continue the behavior can perpetuate the OCD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as restricting access to soap and water can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling a time for the client to perform the ritual does not address the underlying fears driving the behavior.

2. A moderately depressed client who was hospitalized 2 days ago suddenly begins smiling and reporting that the crisis is over. The client says to a nurse, 'I'm finally cured.' The LPN/LVN interprets this behavior as a cue to modify the treatment plan by:

• A. Suggesting a reduction of medication
• B. Allowing increased 'in-room' activities
• C. Increasing the level of suicide precautions
• D. Allowing the client off-unit privileges as needed

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A sudden improvement in mood and declaring being cured can be warning signs of a decision to attempt suicide. Therefore, the appropriate action would be to increase the level of suicide precautions to ensure the safety of the client. This can involve closer monitoring and restriction of items that could be harmful. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not address the potential risk of suicide that may be present with the sudden change in behavior.

3. A client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse should monitor for which early sign of alcohol withdrawal?

• A. Seizures
• B. Visual hallucinations
• C. Tremors
• D. Delirium tremens

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Tremors are an early sign of alcohol withdrawal. They are caused by hyperactivity of the autonomic nervous system and are a common symptom during the early stages of withdrawal. Monitoring tremors is crucial as they can progress to more severe symptoms if not managed effectively. Seizures (Choice A) typically occur later in the withdrawal process and are a more severe symptom. Visual hallucinations (Choice B) usually manifest after tremors and are considered a mid-stage symptom. Delirium tremens (Choice D) is a severe form of alcohol withdrawal that typically occurs 2-3 days after the last drink, characterized by confusion, disorientation, and severe autonomic hyperactivity.

4. A client in a long-term care facility who has multiple sclerosis is embarrassed about the need to use a wheelchair and the muscle spasms that are readily visible in her legs. Which approach is therapeutic in assisting the client to cope?

• A. Keep the client in her room as much as possible
• B. Assist the client with all activities of daily living
• C. Tell the client that many of the people in the facility have these same sorts of problems
• D. Encourage and praise perseverance in performing ADLs, and assist the client to dress and groom daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging and praising the client's perseverance in performing activities of daily living (ADLs) is therapeutic as it helps the client maintain a sense of normalcy and dignity, thus supporting their psychosocial well-being. This approach acknowledges the client's struggles while empowering them to maintain their independence and self-care. Choices A and C are incorrect as they do not address the client's emotional needs and may contribute to further isolation and distress. Choice B, while important, does not specifically address the client's feelings of embarrassment and the need for emotional support.

5. A male client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for recurrent negative symptoms of chronic schizophrenia and medication adjustment of risperidone (Risperdal). When the client walks to the nurse's station in a laterally contracted position, he states that something has made his body contort into a monster. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Medicate the client with the prescribed antipsychotic thioridazine (Mellaril).
• B. Offer the client a prescribed physical therapy hot pack for muscle spasms.
• C. Direct the client to occupational therapy to distract him from somatic complaints.
• D. Administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to administer the prescribed anticholinergic benztropine (Cogentin) for dystonia. Dystonia can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone, leading to involuntary muscle contractions and abnormal postures. Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication commonly used to treat dystonia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because thioridazine is not the appropriate medication in this case, a hot pack would not address the underlying issue of dystonia, and occupational therapy is not the primary intervention for addressing acute dystonic reactions.

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