HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health 2023
1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes her hands throughout the day. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
- B. Encourage the client to talk about the underlying fears.
- C. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.
- D. Schedule a time for the client to perform the ritual.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the underlying fears is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly washes her hands. By discussing the fears, the client can gain insight into the behavior and work towards reducing the compulsion. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to continue the behavior can perpetuate the OCD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as restricting access to soap and water can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling a time for the client to perform the ritual does not address the underlying fears driving the behavior.
2. Which diet selection by a client who is depressed and taking the MAO inhibitor tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) indicates to the nurse that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by this medication regimen?
- A. Hamburger, French fries, and chocolate milkshake.
- B. Liver and onions, broccoli, and decaffeinated coffee.
- C. Pepperoni and cheese pizza, tossed salad, and a soft drink.
- D. Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is (D) Roast beef, baked potato with butter, and iced tea. This diet selection indicates that the client understands the dietary restrictions imposed by taking tranylcypromine sulfate (Parnate) because it does not contain tyramine. Tyramine in foods can interact with MAO inhibitors like Parnate, leading to a hypertensive crisis, which is life-threatening. Choices (A, B, and C) contain foods high in tyramine like cheese, pepperoni, and chocolate, which are contraindicated for clients taking MAO inhibitors.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing severe anxiety. Which intervention is most appropriate for the nurse to implement?
- A. Instruct the client to take deep breaths and focus on the present.
- B. Encourage the client to discuss their fears in detail.
- C. Distract the client with a humorous story or anecdote.
- D. Leave the client alone to process their emotions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing severe anxiety is to instruct the client to take deep breaths and focus on the present. Deep breathing can help reduce the physiological symptoms of anxiety and provide the client with a way to regain control over their emotions. Choice B is incorrect as discussing fears in detail may escalate anxiety levels. Choice C is inappropriate as distracting the client may not address the root cause of anxiety. Choice D is not recommended as leaving the client alone can increase feelings of isolation and distress.
4. A 20-year-old female client with schizophrenia is scheduled to receive risperidone (Risperdal) 2mg at bedtime. When the nurse attempts to administer the medication, the client states, 'I am not going to take that medicine, and you can't make me.' What action should the nurse take?
- A. Administer the medication via a nasogastric tube.
- B. Substitute an injectable form of the medication.
- C. Encourage the client to take the medicine because it will help her sleep.
- D. Document in the client's record that the medication was refused.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to take is to respect the client's autonomy and decision-making capacity. It's crucial to document the medication refusal accurately in the client's record. Administering the medication via a nasogastric tube or substituting it with an injectable form would violate the client's right to refuse treatment and should only be considered in extreme cases after consulting with the healthcare team. Encouraging the client to take the medication because it will help her sleep disregards her autonomy and choice in the matter.
5. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed an SSRI. After one week, the client reports feeling no improvement in mood. What is the best response by the RN?
- A. It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.
- B. We may need to switch to a different medication.
- C. You should feel better by now, let's discuss this with your doctor.
- D. Maybe you are not taking the medication as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.
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