a 45 year old male client tells the nurse that he used to believe that he was jesus christ but now he knows he is not which response is best for the n
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HESI Mental Health Practice Exam

1. A 45-year-old male client tells the nurse that he used to believe that he was Jesus Christ, but now he knows he is not. Which response is best for the nurse to make?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the best response because it validates the client's experience by acknowledging that others have had similar thoughts when under stress. This response helps normalize the client's past experiences without judgment, fostering a supportive and empathetic environment. Choices A and D may come off as judgmental or confrontational, potentially making the client feel misunderstood or defensive. Choice B, 'I think you're getting well,' does not address the client's past belief or provide the understanding and validation that Choice C offers.

2. A client with depression is prescribed an SSRI. The client asks, 'Why do I need to take this medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that the medication may take several weeks to take full effect helps manage the client's expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed treatment.

3. A female client with bulimia nervosa is admitted to the hospital. Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with bulimia nervosa is to observe the client for 30 minutes after meals. This helps prevent purging behaviors, such as vomiting or using laxatives, which are common in bulimia nervosa. Choice A is incorrect because eating meals alone may enable the client to engage in purging behaviors without being observed. Choice C is incorrect as a high-calorie diet may exacerbate the client's concerns about weight gain. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging daily weigh-ins can reinforce obsessive thoughts about weight and body image.

4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol) and begins to exhibit symptoms of tardive dyskinesia. What is the nurse's priority action?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to report the symptoms to the healthcare provider immediately. Tardive dyskinesia is a serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, including haloperidol. Prompt reporting is crucial to evaluate the need for medication adjustment or change in treatment. Continuing the medication without intervention (choice A) can worsen the symptoms. Administering the next dose (choice B) is not appropriate when tardive dyskinesia is suspected. Educating the client (choice D) is important but not the priority when dealing with acute symptoms of tardive dyskinesia.

5. A client is scheduled to complete a positron emission tomography (PET) scan. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason the test was prescribed. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.

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