HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health
1. A client is responding to auditory hallucinations and shakes a fist at a nurse and says, 'Back off, witch!' The nurse follows the client into the day room. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Sit down in a chair near the client.
- B. Position self within an arm's length of the client.
- C. Ensure that there is physical space between the nurse and client.
- D. Move to a position that allows the client to be closest to the room's door.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In situations where a client is responding to auditory hallucinations and displaying aggressive behavior, it is crucial for the nurse to ensure physical space between themselves and the client. This action can help de-escalate the situation and prevent any potential harm to both the nurse and the client. Sitting down near the client (Choice A) may escalate the situation by invading the client's personal space. Positioning oneself within an arm's length of the client (Choice B) may increase the risk of physical confrontation. Moving closer to the room's door (Choice D) may not be appropriate as it can block the client's exit route and escalate the situation further. Therefore, ensuring physical space between the nurse and the client (Choice C) is the most appropriate action to promote safety and prevent escalation.
2. The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an empire. The client stopped taking his medications several days ago. What nursing problem has the highest priority?
- A. Excessive work activity.
- B. Decreased need for sleep.
- C. Medication management.
- D. Inflated self-esteem.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority is to manage the client's medication adherence to prevent escalation of manic behavior. Inflated self-esteem is the highest priority as it indicates the client's potential for harmful behaviors due to lack of medication compliance. While excessive work activity and decreased need for sleep are characteristics of mania, they are not as immediately concerning as the risk of harm related to inflated self-esteem.
3. A female client with major depression is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). She reports experiencing increased energy but still feels sad and hopeless. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. ''These feelings are normal and will pass with time.''
- B. ''Increased energy can sometimes lead to increased risk for self-harm.''
- C. ''The medication needs more time to be effective.''
- D. ''Let's talk about the things that make you feel this way.''
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Increased energy without improvement in mood can increase the risk of self-harm in clients with depression. It is crucial for the nurse to recognize this potential risk and closely monitor the client for any signs of self-harm. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the client's persistent feelings of sadness and hopelessness as normal may invalidate her experiences. Choice C is incorrect as fluoxetine (Prozac) typically starts showing effectiveness within a few weeks, so further delay is concerning. Choice D is incorrect because while discussing the client's feelings is important, the immediate focus should be on addressing the potential risk of self-harm associated with increased energy.
4. A client who has recently been diagnosed with schizophrenia tells the LPN/LVN, 'I hear voices telling me to hurt myself.' What is the most appropriate nursing action?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
- B. Tell the client that the voices will go away with medication.
- C. Monitor the client for signs of self-harm.
- D. Refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to refer the client for a psychiatric evaluation. The client's statement indicating hearing voices telling them to hurt themselves is a serious concern and suggests a risk for self-harm. Referring the client for a psychiatric evaluation is crucial for further assessment and intervention by mental health professionals. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the voices may not address the client's safety. Choice B is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and does not address the immediate risk. Choice C is not as comprehensive as referring for a psychiatric evaluation, which is necessary in this situation.
5. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
- B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
- C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
- D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access